Showing posts with label Board Exam 2026. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Board Exam 2026. Show all posts

HSC Physics Last Minute Strategy: 4-Day Plan to Score 50, 75, or 100 Marks

Physics often creates a unique fear among students. Whether you are aiming to just pass, score a decent 75+, or achieve a perfect 100/100, studying everything without a plan in the last 4 days is a mistake. Below is a strategic breakdown based on your preparation level.

🎯 Strategy 1: Zero Study? (Target: 50 Marks)

The 4-Chapter Rule

If you are struggling to get even 20-25 marks or have done zero study, do NOT try to do all chapters. Your target is to get ~25 marks from theory, which combined with ~25 marks from practicals, will get you to a safe score of 50.

Focus ONLY on these 4 Easy Chapters:

  • Semiconductors
  • Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
  • Magnetic Materials
  • Current Electricity

Tip: Do Previous Year Questions (PYQ) for these chapters. One chapter per day = 4 Days.

🚀 Strategy 2: Moderate Level (Target: 75+ Marks)

The 10-Chapter Plan

If your target is around 75/100 (approx. 50/70 in theory), you need to add moderate-level chapters to the list above. These chapters are manageable within the remaining time.

Do the 4 chapters above PLUS these 6:

  • Kinetic Theory of Gases and Radiation (KTG)
  • Oscillations
  • Thermodynamics
  • Wave Optics
  • Superposition of Waves
  • Structure of Atoms and Nuclei

Total Weightage: These 10 chapters cover approximately 50+ marks in the theory paper.

🏆 Strategy 3: Toppers (Target: 100 Marks)

Full Syllabus & Difficult Topics

If you are aiming for full marks, you cannot skip the difficult chapters. While Rotational Dynamics is often done by everyone, the following chapters are considered difficult and are usually skipped by others. You must master these:

  • Mechanical Properties of Fluids
  • Electrostatics
  • Electromagnetic Induction (EMI)
  • AC Circuits
  • Magnetic Fields due to Electric Current

📅 4-Day Revision Schedule

Revise the syllabus effectively in the last 4 days.

Date Topic / Activity
12th Feb Physics Part-1 Numericals (Most Important)
13th Feb Physics Part-2 Numericals
14th Feb Complete Theoretical Questions
15th Feb Full Physics Revision

SSC Class 10 History and Political Science Important Question Paper 2026 (Solved Board Papers) | Target 90+ Marks

Comprehensive Board Question Bank 2026

Subject: History & Political Science (SSC Class 10)

Target: 90+ Marks

SECTION 1: HISTORY

Q.1 (A) Choose the correct option and complete the sentences

1. It may be said that ............... was the founder of modern historiography.
(a) Voltaire
(b) René Descartes
(c) Leopold Ranké
(d) Karl Marx
Answer: (a) Voltaire
2. The ................. saw the rise of Mathura school.
(a) Kushana period
(b) Gupta period
(c) Rashtrakuta period
(d) Maurya period
Answer: (a) Kushana period
3. ................. at Kolkata is the first museum in India.
(a) Government Museum
(b) National Museum
(c) CSVS Museum
(d) Indian Museum
Answer: (d) Indian Museum
4. Louvre Museum has in its collection the much acclaimed painting of ....................... by Leonardo-da-Vinci.
(a) Napoleon
(b) Mona Lisa
(c) Hans Sloan
(d) George II
Answer: (b) Mona Lisa
5. The earliest museum in the world was discovered in the excavations at the city of ...................
(a) Delhi
(b) Harappa
(c) Ur
(d) Kolkata
Answer: (c) Ur
6. The first Chief Minister of Maharashtra was ................ .
(a) Vasantrao Naik
(b) Yashwantrao Chavhan
(c) Shankarrao Chavhan
(d) Vasantdada Patil
Answer: (b) Yashwantrao Chavhan
7. The Sanskrit text of ‘Hitopadesh’ was translated into German by .................. .
(a) James Mill
(b) Friedrich Max Muller
(c) Mountstuart Elphinstone
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer: (b) Friedrich Max Muller
8. According to ______, “human history is the history of class struggle.”
(a) Voltaire
(b) Hegel
(c) Leopold Von Ranke
(d) Karl Marx
Answer: (d) Karl Marx

Q.1 (B) Identify the wrong pair in the following and rewrite

Set 1:
  • (i) Rene Descartes — ‘Discourse on the Method’
  • (ii) Karl Marx — ‘Das Capital’
  • (iii) Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel — ‘Reason in History’
  • (iv) Leopold von Ranke — ‘The Histories’
Wrong Pair: (iv) Leopold von Ranke — ‘The Histories’
Corrected: Leopold von Ranke — ‘The Theory and Practice of History’ / ‘The Secret of World History’
Set 2:
  • (i) Matheran — Hill Station
  • (ii) Tadoba — Rock-cut Caves
  • (iii) Kolhapur — Pilgrim Centre
  • (iv) Ajanta — World Heritage
Wrong Pair: (ii) Tadoba — Rock-cut Caves
Corrected: Tadoba — Wildlife Sanctuary / National Park
Set 3:
  • (i) Kootiyattam – Sanskrit theatre, Kerala
  • (ii) Ramman – Dance form in West Bengal
  • (iii) Ramlila – Traditional performance of Ramayana, UP
  • (iv) Kalbelia – Folk songs and dances of Rajasthan
Wrong Pair: (ii) Ramman – Dance form in West Bengal
Corrected: Ramman – Religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas (Uttarakhand)
Set 4:
  • (i) Raigadala Jevha Jag Yete — Vasant Kanetkar
  • (ii) Tilak ani Agarkar — Vishram Bedekar
  • (iii) Sashtang Namaskar — Acharya Atre
  • (iv) Ekach Pyala — Annasaheb Kirloskar
Wrong Pair: (iv) Ekach Pyala — Annasaheb Kirloskar
Corrected: Ekach Pyala — Ram Ganesh Gadkari

Q.2 (A) Complete the Concept Maps/Charts

1. Complete the concept chart: Types of Tourism
Answer (Any 4):
  • Historical Tourism
  • Geographic Tourism
  • Health Tourism
  • Agro-Tourism
  • Sports Tourism
  • International Tourism
2. Complete the chart: Libraries in India and Cities
  • Kolkata: National Library
  • Delhi: Nehru Memorial Museum and Library
  • Hyderabad: State Central Library
  • Mumbai: Library of Asiatic Society / David Sassoon Library
3. Complete the chart: Disciplines in Humanities
Answer (Any 4):
  • History
  • Archaeology
  • Sociology
  • Anthropology
  • Political Science
  • Economics
4. World Natural Heritage Sites in India (Timeline)
  • 1985: Kaziranga National Park
  • 1985: Keoladeo National Park / Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
  • 1987: Sundarbans National Park
  • 2012: Western Ghats
  • 2014: Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area

Q.2 (B) Write Short Notes

1. Applied History
Applied History, also known as Public History, is a field of study concerned with the application of history for the benefit of people in contemporary and future times. Knowledge of history can provide guidance in finding solutions to current social issues and incorporate them in social planning. Projects in applied history create opportunities for professionals in archives, museums, and tourism.
2. The role of newspapers in the Indian struggle for independence
Newspapers played a pivotal role in the freedom struggle. They served as a medium of creating social and political awareness (Janajagruti). They criticized the unjust policies of the British government. Newspapers like Kesari, Maratha, Darpan, and Prabhakar published articles that educated the masses and united them against colonial rule. They also discussed social reformation issues (e.g., widow remarriage, caste system).
3. Sthalakosh
Sthalakosh refers to encyclopedias of geography and local history. It provides detailed information about various places, their history, geography, and cultural significance. For example, 'Prachin Bharatiya Sthalakosh' by Siddheshwarshastri Chitrav provides information about places mentioned in ancient literature. It helps researchers and tourists understand the historical context of a location.
4. Vishwakosh
The Maharashtra State Government established the Maharashtra Rajya Sahitya Samskruti Mandal for the compilation of the Marathi Vishwakosh (Encyclopedia). The first Chief Minister, Yashwantrao Chavhan, initiated it, and Tarkateertha Laxmanshastri Joshi was the chief editor. It aims to make knowledge from all spheres of life available in the Marathi language to facilitate the development of the language and intellectual growth of society.

Q.3 Explain the following statements with reasons

1. Bakhar is an important type of historical document.
'Bakhar' is a form of historical narrative written in Marathi prose. It is one of the most important sources of medieval Indian history, especially Maratha history. Bakhars contain eulogies of heroes, descriptions of historic events, battles, and lives of great men. Although some Bakhars may contain exaggeration, they provide valuable information about the contemporary political happenings, linguistic transactions, and social life of that period.
2. Foucault called his method ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.
French historian Michel Foucault, in his book 'The Archaeology of Knowledge', argued that the prevailing practice of arranging historical events in chronological order is not right. He drew attention to the fact that archaeology does not strive to reach the ultimate historical truth but attempts to explain various transitions in the past. Since he gave more importance to explaining the transitions in history, he called his method ‘the archaeology of knowledge’.
3. It is essential to study the history of technology.
Technology has always been an integral part of human progress. To understand the development of mankind, it is essential to understand the history of technology. Each scientific discovery leads to technological advancement (e.g., discovery of fire, invention of the wheel, agriculture). Understanding the history of technology helps in understanding the changes and their causes in the agricultural production, commodity production, architecture, and engineering.
4. Only trained persons who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.
The work of conservation and preservation of historical sites and artifacts requires specific scientific knowledge and technical skills. One must know the chemical properties of materials, the original methods of creation, and the effects of environmental factors. Improper handling can damage precious heritage irretrievably. Therefore, only trained experts who understand the scientific and historical aspects can perform these tasks effectively without causing harm.

Q.4 Read the passage and answer the questions

Topic: Hemadpanti Temples
  1. How are the outer walls of Hemadpanti temples built?
    The outer walls are built in a star shape with a zigzag design, creating an alternating light and shadow effect.
  2. Give examples of Hemadpanti temples.
    Ambreshwar temple at Ambarnath (near Mumbai), Gondeshwar temple at Sinnar (Nashik), and Aundha Nagnath temple (Hingoli).
  3. Characteristics of Hemadpanti temples?
    The most distinct characteristic is the masonry produced without using lime or mortar. The stones are locked together using the tenon and mortise joint system. The plan is often star-shaped.
Topic: Village of Books (Bhilar)
  1. Name the village of books.
    Bhilar (near Mahabaleshwar).
  2. Which scheme was started by the Government of Maharashtra?
    The 'Village of Books' scheme was implemented to accelerate the 'Reading Culture' movement.
  3. Write your opinion about the village of books.
    It is an excellent initiative that promotes literature and tourism simultaneously. It helps preserve the Marathi language and encourages tourists to engage in reading while enjoying nature.

Q.5 Answer the following questions in detail

1. Explain Karl Marx’s class theory.
According to Karl Marx, history is not about abstract ideas but about living people. Human relationships are shaped by the fundamental needs of people and the ownership as well as the nature of prevalent means of production to meet those needs. The accessibility of these means to different strata of society may not be equal. This inequality causes a division of society into two classes (the 'haves' and the 'have-nots'), leading to class struggle. Marx argued that human history is the history of class struggle, as the class that owns the means of production exploits the rest of the classes.
2. Explain the close tie between Sports and History.
There is a close tie between sports and history. One needs to resort to history to understand the tradition of various sports.
  • Journalism: Sports journalists need to know the history of the game, rules, and past records to write articles or commentary.
  • Equipment: Understanding how sports equipment has evolved requires historical knowledge.
  • Competitions: Knowledge of the history of the Olympics, Asiad, or Commonwealth Games is essential for organizing or analyzing these events.
  • Biographies: Studying the lives of past players (like Major Dhyan Chand) inspires current generations.
3. What is feminist historiography?
Feminist historiography means the restructuring of the history from the perspective of women. The writings of Simone de Beauvoir helped in establishing the fundamentals of feminism. It emphasized the inclusion of women in history and a rethinking of the male-dominated perspective of history. It drove historical research to focus in depth on various aspects of women’s life such as their employment, their role in trade unions, institutions working for their cause, and their family life. In the historical writings after 1990, women were portrayed as an independent social class.

SECTION 2: POLITICAL SCIENCE

Q.6 Choose the correct option

1. The Election Commissioner is appointed by the ................ .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Vice-President
Answer: (a) President
2. 73rd and 74th Amendment to the Indian constitution gave a constitutional status to ______ .
(a) Vidhansabha
(b) Local self-governing institutions
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (b) Local self-governing institutions
3. In Maharashtra ................. seats are reserved for women in local self-governing institutions.
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer: (d) 50%
4. To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ............ was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer: (b) Green revolution
5. The Voters age decided by the Indian Constitution is ................. .
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 21
Answer: (c) 18

Q.7 True or False with Reasons

1. The nature of Constitution is seen as a living document.
Answer: True
Reason: The Constitution is dynamic and not static. It needs to change according to changing conditions. The Parliament has the power to make amendments to the Constitution. The Constitution has accepted the necessity of modification, making it a living document.
2. The Election Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.
Answer: True
Reason: To ensure free and fair elections, the Election Commission adopts measures to prevent malpractices. The Code of Conduct explains the rules that the government, political parties, and voters must follow before and during elections.
3. Coalition politics leads to instability.
Answer: False
Reason: While early coalition governments (post-1977 and 1989) were unstable, the political system in India has adapted to it. The successful tenure of the NDA and UPA governments showed that coalitions can function effectively and provide stability.
4. Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds elections in a particular constituency for a second time.
Answer: True
Reason: If there are instances of booth capturing, violence, or if the voting process is compromised in a specific constituency, the Election Commission cancels the original poll and orders a re-election (re-poll) to ensure fairness.

Q.8 (A) Explain the concepts

1. Right to Information (RTI)
RTI was enacted in 2005 to ensure transparency and accountability in the working of the government. It empowers citizens to demand information from public authorities, thereby reducing secrecy and making the government more responsive to the people. It strengthens democracy by building trust between the government and citizens.
2. Criminalisation of Politics
This refers to the increasing participation of criminals in the political process. Political parties often give tickets to candidates with criminal backgrounds because they have 'elective merit' (money and muscle power) to win elections. This trend threatens democratic values and good governance.
3. Regional Parties
Regional parties are political groups that have a strong sense of regional identity. They prioritize the interests and development of their specific region (state) over national issues. They demand autonomy and want to resolve regional problems at the local level. Examples: Shiv Sena, Telugu Desam Party.

Q.9 Answer in brief

1. What are the effects of reducing the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
  • It encouraged political participation among the youth.
  • India became the largest democracy in the world due to the increased number of voters.
  • It made political parties consider the aspirations and demands of the youth in their manifestos.
  • It broadened the scope of Indian democracy.
2. Explain the functions of environmental movement.
The environmental movement works to address serious issues like:
  • Protection of biodiversity.
  • Conservation of water sources.
  • Preventing pollution of air, water, and soil.
  • Opposing deforestation and advocating for sustainable development.
  • Opposing large dams or projects that harm ecosystems.

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CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 01 Solutions 2026

Sample Paper 01 Solutions

Class X 2024-25 Science (086)

Time: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 80
Download PDF
General Instructions:
  1. All questions would be compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 33% would be provided. 50% marks are to be allotted to competency-based questions.
  2. Section A would have 16 simple/complex MCQs and 04 Assertion-Reasoning type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  3. Section B would have 6 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C would have 7 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D would have 3 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E would have 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1/2/3 marks.
SECTION-A

Question 1 to 16 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.

1.
Identify '\(x\)', '\(y\)', and '\(z\)' in the following balanced reaction: $$ x Al(s) + y O_2(g) \rightarrow z Al_2O_3(s) $$
(a) 4, 3, 2
(b) 2, 1, 1
(c) 4, 2, 2
(d) 2, 3, 2
Ans: (a) 4, 3, 2
The balanced reaction is: \( 4 Al(s) + 3 O_2(g) \rightarrow 2 Al_2O_3(s) \)
2.
4 moles of aluminum react with 3 moles of oxygen to form 2 moles of aluminum oxide. Consider the following table:
Substance pH
Lemon 2.3
Battery acid \(x\)
Sea water 8.5
Apple 3.1
The value of \(x\) in above table is:
(a) 0
(b) 1.3
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.9
Ans: (a) 0
The value of \(x\) is 0. The value of pH of battery acid is zero. pH may be defined as a number by which negative power of 10 has to be raised in order to express the concentration of hydrogen ion of solution.
3.
Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before making it to burn. The reason of rubbing the ribbon is to:
(a) remove moisture condensed over the surface of ribbon.
(b) generate heat due to exothermic reaction.
(c) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium.
(d) mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) with magnesium for lowering ignition temperature of the ribbon.
Ans: (c) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium.
When magnesium is exposed to air, a layer of oxide is formed on its surface and it gets corroded. So, as to remove the layer of oxide formed (MgO), magnesium ribbon is rubbed.
4.
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different angles of incidence. He analyzes each diagram and draws the following conclusion:
I. On entering prism, the light ray bends towards its base.
II. Light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
III. Emergent ray bends at certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
IV. While emerging from the prism, the light ray bends towards the vertex of the prism.
Out of the above inferences, the correct ones are:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and IV
Ans: (a) I, II and III
Incident ray and the emergent ray on passing through the prism follows the different path. On refraction of a ray of light through the prism, the emergent ray always bends at an angle with the incident ray called angle of deviation. Light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
5.
Which of the following structures is involved in gaseous exchange in woody stem of a plant?
(a) Stomata
(b) Guard cell
(c) Lenticel
(d) Epidermis
Ans: (c) Lenticel
In woody stems, there is a special organ called lenticels which helps in the respiratory exchange of gases. Lenticels are the tissue which consists of large inter-cellular spaces in the periderm layer. The tissues are porous in nature and functions as a pore which helps in direct exchange of gases in the woody stems.
6.
A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast is that
(a) They reproduce asexually
(b) They are all unicellular
(c) They reproduce only sexually
(d) They are all multicellular
Ans: (a) they reproduce asexually
Amoeba, Spirogyra, and Yeast all reproduce by the asexual method. Amoeba reproduces by binary fission, Spirogyra by fragmentation, and Yeast by the budding method. All are unicellular organisms.
7.
Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) on complete combustion gave \(CO_2\) and water. It shows that the results are in accordance with the law of conservation of mass. Then, the coefficient of oxygen is equal to
(a) 7/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 9/2
Ans: (a) 7/2
Balanced chemical equation w.r.t. law of conservation of mass.
\( C_2H_6 + \frac{7}{2}O_2 \longrightarrow 2CO_2 + 3H_2O \)
The coefficient of \(C_2H_6\) is 1, \(\frac{7}{2}\) for \(O_2\), 2 for \(CO_2\) and 3 for \(H_2O\).
8.
When white light passes through the achromatic combination of prisms, then what is observed?
(a) Deviation
(b) Dispersion
(c) Both deviation and dispersion
(d) Atmospheric refraction
Ans: (a) Deviation
When white light passes through a prism It disperses into band of seven colours. But when two prism are combined in such a way that sum of angular dispersions of crown glass prism and flint glass prism is zero then such a combination is achromatic combination of prisms. When white light passes through achromatic combination of prisms, internally dispersed components of white light from crown glass prism refract and meet together at the outer surface edge of flint glass prism, so the refracted light from the achromatic combination of prisms become white light again with deviation only without any dispersion.
9.
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true?
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride.
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride.
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 4
Ans: (a) Only 1
Silver chloride decomposes to silver in presence of sunlight hence turns grey.
10.
Magnesium reacts with hot water and steam both. Human body stores energy in form of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Insulin
(c) Glycogen
(d) Fructose
Ans: (c) glycogen
Carbohydrates, such as sugar and starch, are readily broken down into glucose, the body's principal energy source. Glucose can be used immediately as fuel, or can be sent to the liver and muscles and stored as glycogen.
11.
No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be-
(a) Plane
(b) Concave
(c) Convex
(d) Either plane or convex
Ans: (d) Either plane or convex
No matter whatever is the position of object, a convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image of the object placed in front of it, whereas a plane mirror always forms a virtual, erect and of the same size image as that of the object placed in front of it. Therefore, the given mirror could be either plane or convex.
12.
What must be preserved in an ecosystem, if the system needs to be maintained?
(a) Producers and carnivores
(b) Producers and decomposers
(c) Carnivores and decomposers
(d) Herbivores and carnivores
Ans: (b) producers and decomposers
The most important characteristics of any ecosystem are energy flow and cycling of materials. Producers and decomposers are indispensable for any ecosystem. Producers trap solar energy and convert it into usable form as carbohydrates which are passed on to successive levels through food chains and food webs. The other important characteristic of the ecosystem is cycling of materials. This is called as biogeochemical cycles, in which decomposers are most important because they will release the mineral nutrients back to the environment.
13.
Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) cerebrum
(b) cerebellum
(c) medulla
(d) pons
Ans: (b) cerebellum
Cerebellum is the region which plays a major role in coordination of voluntary motor movement, balance and equilibrium and muscle tone. Cerebellar damage causes disorder in coordination, speed, posture and motor learning.
14.
A student determines the focal length of a device \(X\), by focusing the image of a far off object on the screen positioned as shown in figure. The device \(X\) is a
[Diagram showing rays reflecting off a mirror onto a screen]
(a) Convex lens
(b) Concave lens
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Concave mirror
Ans: (d) Concave mirror
A concave mirror alone can form real image of distant object on the screen held in position, as shown in figure.
15.
Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
Ans: (b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
Magnesium does not react with cold water to give magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
\( Mg(s) + H_2O(l) \longrightarrow Mg(OH)_2 + H_2(g) \uparrow \)
16.
Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because
(i) mineral acids are completely ionized.
(ii) carboxylic acids are completely ionized
(iii) mineral acids are partially ionized
(iv) carboxylic acids are partially ionized
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: (a) (i) and (iv)
Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because mineral acids are completely ionised whereas carboxylic acids are partially ionised.
Question no. 17 to 20 are Assertion-Reasoning based questions.
17.
Assertion : Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction.
Reason : Energy gets released in the process of photosynthesis.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction because energy in the form of sunlight is absorbed by the green plants.
18.
Assertion : Our body maintains blood sugar level.
Reason : Pancreas secretes insulin which helps to regulate blood sugar levels in the body.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
Pancreas secretes insulin which helps to regulate blood sugar levels in the body. If the sugar level in blood rises, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.
19.
Assertion : Artificial kidney is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
Reason : Reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Ans: (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Kidney failure can be managed by artificial kidney. It is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis. Artificial kidney is different from natural kidney as the process of reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
20.
Assertion : The product of resistivity and conductivity of a conductor depends on the material of the conductor.
Reason : Because each of resistivity and conductivity depends on the material of the conductor.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
\( \text{Conductivity} = \frac{1}{\text{Resistivity}} \)
\( \text{Conductivity} \times \text{resistivity} = 1 \)
SECTION-B

Question no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.

21.
If you keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, what type of movements would be shown by the shoot and root after two or three days. Why?
Ans:
If we keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, shoots may grow upwards and away from the earth while roots always grow downwards. It happens because shoots are negatively geotropic and positively phototropic while roots are positively geotropic.
22.
What are the rules of inheritance?
Ans:
On the basis of his experiments, Mendel established some rules which are called the rules of inheritance. They are:
(i) Law of Dominance,
(ii) Law of Segregation and
(iii) Law of Independent Assortment.
23.
A. What prevents the metals such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc and lead from oxidation at ordinary temperature?
Ans:
At ordinary temperature, the surface of metals such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc and lead, etc., are covered with a thin layer of oxide. The protective oxide layer prevents the metals from further oxidation.
or
B. Explain why sodium hydroxide solution cannot be kept in aluminium containers? Write equation for the reaction that may take for the same.
Ans:
Aluminium is an amphoteric metal. It reacts with NaOH to form \(NaAlO_2\). So, NaOH cannot be stored in an aluminium container.
\( 2Al + 2NaOH \rightarrow 2NaAlO_2 + H_2(g) \)
24.
What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination in flowering plants.
Ans:
Pollination: Is the process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower. If this transfer of pollen occurs in the same flower or flowers of same plant, it is referred to as self-pollination whereas if the pollen is transferred from one flower to another of same species, it is known as cross-pollination.
25.
A. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two differences between the two images.
Ans:
(i) When the object is placed in front of the mirror:
(a) between the pole and focus.
(b) between the focus and centre of curvature.
(ii) In case (a) the image is virtual and erect.
(iii) In case (b) the image is real and inverted.
or
B. What is the difference between virtual images produced by concave, plane and convex mirror?
Ans:
Virtual image produced by concave mirror is magnified, that produced by plane mirror is of the same size and the virtual image produced by convex mirror is diminished.
26.
In the cartoon below, a rabbit is shown eating grass and later a fox is seen hunting the rabbit. In the next frame, after the fox dies, mushrooms and earthworms are feeding on its body. What role do the rabbit and fox play in the food chain?
Ans:
(i) The rabbit is a primary consumer (herbivore) because it eats plants (grass).
(ii) The fox is a secondary consumer (carnivore) because it preys on the rabbit.
SECTION-C

Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.

27.
Aman creates a compact device that uses an organic compound (\(C_3H_8O\)) reacting with sodium metal to produce hydrogen gas. This hydrogen powers a fuel cell, providing a clean and immediate energy source. Deduce the possible structure of the compound. Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
Ans:
\( 2CH_3CH_2CH_2OH + 2Na \longrightarrow 2CH_3CH_2CH_2O^-Na^+ + H_2(g) \)
(Propanol) -> (Sodium propoxide)
The possible structure of compound is propanol.
$$ H-C(H)(H)-C(H)(H)-C(H)(H)-O-H $$
28.
A. Our government launches campaigns to provide information about AIDS prevention, testing and treatment by putting posters, conducting radio shows and using other agencies of advertisements. To which category of diseases AIDS belongs? Name and explain. What is its causative organism? Also give two more examples of such diseases.
Ans:
AIDS belongs to STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases). The diseases which are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called sexually transmitted disease.
Its causative organism is a virus — HIV.
Some examples are:
(i) Gonorrhoea caused by bacteria
(ii) Syphilis caused by bacteria
(iii) Warts
or
B. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and the product of fertilisation in a flower.
Ans:
(i) The transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination whereas fertilisation is the process when the male gamete present in pollen grain joins the female gamete present in ovule.
(ii) Pollination is an external mechanism whereas fertilisation is an internal mechanism which takes place inside the flower.
Site of fertilisation in flower is ovary.
Product of fertilisation in flower is zygote.
29.
Explain the following chemical changes, giving one example in each case:
(i) Displacement or substitution,
(ii) Dissociation,
(iii) Isomerisation reaction.
Ans:
(i) Displacement or substitution reaction: The reaction in which an atom or a group of atoms in the molecule is replaced by another atom or a group of atoms is called displacement or substitution reaction. For example, zinc displaces copper from its sulphate solution.
\( CuSO_4 + Zn \longrightarrow ZnSO_4 + Cu \)
(ii) Dissociation reaction: When a substance breaks up into positive and negative ions in water, it is called dissociation reaction. For example, acetic acid in water dissociates into \(CH_3COO^-\) and \(H^+\) ions.
\( CH_3COOH + H_2O \rightleftharpoons CH_3COO^- + H_3O^+ \)
(iii) Isomerisation reaction: When a compound changes into another compound by simple rearrangement of atoms, it is called an isomerisation reaction. For example,
\( NH_4CNO \xrightarrow{\text{heat}} NH_2CONH_2 \) (Ammonium cyanate to Urea)
30.
Why does a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection, is reflected back along the same path?
Ans:
It is because the incident ray falls on the mirror along the normal to the reflecting surface. Hence the angle of incidence is zero and according to law of reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection. Therefore the reflected ray back along the same path.
31.
(i) A compound lens is made of two lenses in contact having powers \(+12.5 D\) and \(-2.5 D\). Find the focal length and power of the combination.
(ii) The magnification produced by a mirror is \(+1\). What does this mean?
Ans:
(i) \( P = P_1 + P_2 = 12.5 + (-2.5) = 10 D \)
\( f = \frac{1}{P} = \frac{1}{10} = 0.1 \text{ m} \)
(ii) '+' sign means image is virtual and erect. 1 means it is of the same size.
32.
In the given circuit, find:
(i) Total resistance of the network of resistors
(ii) Current through ammeter \(A\)
[Circuit description: A 6V battery. Two parallel branches. Branch 1 has \(4\Omega\) and \(2\Omega\) in series. Branch 2 has \(3\Omega\) and \(3\Omega\) in series.]
Ans:
(i) In the given circuit diagram \(4 \Omega\) and \(2 \Omega\) resistances are connected in series combination and \(3 \Omega\) and \(3 \Omega\) resistance are also connected in the series combination.
\( R_1 = 4 + 2 = 6 \Omega \)
\( R_2 = 3 + 3 = 6 \Omega \)
Now the equivalent resistance of circuit
\( \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} = \frac{2}{6} \)
\( R_{eq} = \frac{6}{2} = 3 \Omega \)
(ii) According to ohm's law,
\( V = IR_{eq} \)
\( I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{6}{3} = 2 A \)
33.
(i) How many eggs are produced every month by either of the ovaries in a human female? Where does fertilization take place in the female reproductive system?
(ii) What happens in case the eggs released by the ovary are not fertilized?
Ans:
(i) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries. Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube.
(ii) In case the egg released by the ovary is not fertilized, it lives for about one day. Since the uterus prepares itself every month to receive a fertilized egg its lining becomes thick and spongy and since it is not required anymore, this lining slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucous. This is known as menstruation.
SECTION-D

Question no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.

34.
Discuss the physical properties of non-metals.
Discuss the exceptions in the properties of metals and non-metals.
Ans:
Physical properties of non-metals are following:
(i) Non-metals are brittle: They break into pieces when hammered or stretched, i.e., they are not malleable.
(ii) Non-metals are non-ductile: These cannot be drawn into wires.
(iii) Non-metals are bad conductors of heat and electricity: Non-metals do not have free electrons. There is one exception graphite, which is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
(iv) Non-metals are non-lustrous and cannot be polished: The exceptions are graphite and iodine which are lustrous.
(v) Non-metals are generally soft: Except diamond (allotropic form of carbon) which is the hardest substance known, non-metals are soft.
(vi) Non-metals generally have low melting and boiling points: Except graphite which has high melting point, non-metals have weak intra-molecular force.
(vii) Non-metals have low densities: Most non-metals are light.

Exceptions in the properties of metals and non-metals:
(i) All metals except mercury exist as solids at room temperature. Metals have high melting points but gallium and caesium have very low melting points. These two metals will melt if they are kept on palm.
(ii) Iodine is a non-metal but it is lustrous.
(iii) Carbon is a non-metal that can exist in different forms. Each form is called an allotrope. Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest natural substance known and has a very high melting and boiling points. Graphite, another allotrope of carbon, is a conductor of electricity.
(iv) Alkali metals (lithium, sodium, potassium) are so soft that they can be cut with a knife. They have low densities and low melting points.
35.
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population. Mention two factors that determine the size of population.
OR
How do the following organisms reproduce by asexual methods?
(i) Euglena (ii) Spirogyra (iii) Ginger (iv) Chrysanthemum (v) Strawberry (vi) Mango
Ans:
(i) Three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population:
(a) One category is the use of a mechanical barrier, e.g., condoms.
(b) Another category of contraceptive acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilization doesn't occur, e.g., oral pills.
(c) Use of intrauterine device like copper-T to prevent pregnancy.
(ii) Two factors that determine the size of population:
(a) Rate of birth;
(b) Rate of death.

OR
(i) Euglena — Binary fission.
(ii) Spirogyra — Fragmentation.
(iii) Ginger — Natural vegetative propagation by stems.
(iv) Chrysanthemum — Artificial vegetative propagation by cutting.
(v) Strawberry — Artificial vegetative propagation by layering.
(vi) Mango — Artificial vegetative propagation by grafting.
36.
A household uses the following electric appliances:
(i) refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 hours each day.
(ii) two electric fans of rating 80 W each for 6 hours daily.
(iii) six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours daily.
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for month of June, if cost of electrical energy is ₹3.00 per unit.
OR
The values of current \(I\) flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference \(V\) across the resistor are given below:
\(I\) (ampere): 0.5, 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0
\(V\) (volt): 1.6, 3.4, 6.7, 10.2, 13.2
Plot a graph between \(V\) and \(I\) and calculate the resistance of the resistor.
Ans:
Energy consumed per day by refrigerator = \( 0.4 \text{ kW} \times 10 \text{ h} = 4 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed per day by fans = \( 2 \times 0.08 \text{ kW} \times 6 = 0.96 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed by lights = \( 6 \times 0.018 \text{ kW} \times 6 \text{ h} = 0.648 \text{ kWh} \)
Total energy consumed per day = \( 4 + 0.96 + 0.648 = 5.608 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed in 30 days = \( 30 \times 5.608 = 168.24 \text{ kWh} \)
Cost of 168.24 units @ ₹3.00 = \( 168.24 \times 3 = \text{₹}504.72 \)

OR
From the graph (plotting V vs I), we can take values of \(V\) and \(I\).
\( \Delta V = (6.7 - 3.4) = 3.3 \text{ Volt} \)
\( \Delta I = (2.0 - 1.0) = 1.0 \text{ A} \)
\( R = \frac{V}{I} = \frac{3.3}{1.0} = 3.3 \Omega \)
So, Resistance = \( 3.3 \Omega \) (ohm)
SECTION-E

Question no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions.

37.
After coming from playground, Tanu feels very hungry. But still some more time was required by her mother to cook food. While waiting on dining table Tanu was playing with her spoon. All of sudden she observed two different orientations of her face when she looked her face from both sides of spoon. She was confused why the orientation of her face changed in two cases.
(i) Which type of image is formed on the both surface of spoon?
(ii) As tanu move concave surface of spoon towards her face, again she find that there comes a point (provided the spoon is big enough) where her image flips from inverted to upright. State the condition under which it happens? Is this image real or virtual?
(iii) The given ray diagram depict the correct explanation of the image formed by one surface of the spoon. Name the surface which can form the image as depicted in given ray diagram?
OR
(iv) Tanu was trying to form image using a concave mirror. She got an inverted and real image of same size of the object. Given figure shows four possible positions of the image formed. Figure out the correct position and justify it.
Ans:
(i) Erect image in convex surface and inverted image in concave surface.
(ii) When object is place between focus and pole of the mirror, it forms virtual and erect image. So as we move concave surface of spoon towards our face as soon as our face comes between principal focus and pole we observe erect and virtual image of our face.
(iii) Convex surface of the spoon will form the image as depicted in the given ray diagram.
(iv) Image A is the correct image as concave mirror forms real and inverted image of the same size of the object when object is placed at centre of curvature of the mirror.
38.
Acids, bases and salts are three main categories of chemical compounds. These have certain definite properties which distinguish one class from the other. The acids are sour in taste while bases are bitter in taste... (content on indicators)...
(i) Give two examples each of natural and artificial indicators.
(ii) An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which solution would reverse the change-ammonium hydroxide solution or hydrochloric acid?
(iii) What will be the change in colour when a few drops of phenolphthalein is added to a solution having pH 8.5.
OR
(iv) What is universal indicator?
Ans:
(i) Natural Indicators: Turmeric and red cabbage, Artificial Indicators: Methyl red and methyl orange.
(ii) Hydrochloric acid because adding excess acid to the base would turn blue litmus solution red.
(iii) It changes into pink.
(iv) Universal indicator is a mixture of dyes that changes colour gradually over a range of pH and is used in testing for acids and alkalis.
39.
Questions are based on the two table given below. Study these tables related to blood pressure level and answer the question that follow:
Table-A: Hypertension Guidelines (Normal: 120/80, High Stage 1: 130-139 / 80-90, etc.)
Table-B: BP of Patients X and Y at Morning, Afternoon, Evening.
(i) In the table B, at which time patent-Y have ideal normal blood pressure?
(ii) Identify the patient, which have hypertension stage-1 blood pressure?
(iii) Which Diet is the best for high blood pressure patient?
OR
(iv) What is the ideal blood pressure measurement of a human?
Ans:
(i) Afternoon (80-120)
(ii) Patient X (82-132) Evening
(iii) Grain and fruits
(iv) 80-120 mm Hg
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Class 10th Board Exam Blueprint 2026 (Maths, Science, Social Science)

Class 10th Blueprint For Board Exam 2026

Maths
  • Real Numbers 6 Marks
  • Polynomials 5 Marks
  • Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 5 Marks
  • Quadratic Equations 5 Marks
  • Arithmetic Progressions 5 Marks
  • Triangles 7 Marks
  • Coordinate Geometry 6 Marks
  • Introduction to Trigonometry 7 Marks
  • Some Applications of Trigonometry 5 Marks
  • Circles 8 Marks
  • Areas Related to Circles 4 Marks
  • Surface Areas and Volumes 6 Marks
  • Statistics 7 Marks
  • Probability 4 Marks
Science
  • Chemical Reactions And Equations 5 Marks
  • Acid Bases And Salts 10 Marks
  • Metals And Non Metals 5 Marks
  • Carbon And It's Compounds 5 Marks
  • Life Processes 10 Marks
  • Control And Coordination 5 Marks
  • How Do Organisms Reproduce 5 Marks
  • Heredity 5 Marks
  • Light, Reflection And Refraction 8 Marks
  • Human Eye 4 Marks
  • Electricity 10 Marks
  • Magnetic Effects Of Electric Current 3 Marks
  • Our Environment 5 Marks
Social Science
  • The Rise of Nationalism in Europe 6 Marks
  • Nationalism in India 8 Marks
  • Making of Global World 2 Marks
  • Print Culture & Modern World 4 Marks
  • Development 5 Marks
  • Sectors of Indian Economy 7 Marks
  • Money & Credit 6 Marks
  • Globalisation & Indian Economy 2 Marks
  • Resources & Development 1 Marks
  • Forest & Wild Life 2 Marks
  • Water Resources 5 Marks
  • Agriculture 8 Marks
  • Minerals & Energy Resources 1 Marks
  • Manufacturing Industries 2 Marks
  • Lifelines of National Economy 1 Marks
  • Power Sharing 3 Marks
  • Federalism 5 Marks
  • Gender, Religion & Caste 5 Marks
  • Political Parties 6 Marks
  • Outcomes of Democracy 1 Marks

Mathematics Top 200 Important Questions for Board Exam 2026

Mathematics Top 200 Important Question

For Board Exam 2025

📥 Download This PDF
MCQ’s and 1 Marks
1. Out of the following which is the Pythagorean triplet?
(A) (1,5,10)
(B) (3,4,5)
(C) (2,2,2)
(D) (5,5,2)
2. Two circles of radii 5.5 cm and 3.3 cm respectively touch each other externally. What is the distance between their centres?
(A) 4.4 cm
(B) 2.2 cm
(C) 8.8 cm
(D) 8.9 cm
3. Distance of point (–3,4) from the origin is
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) –5
(D) 5
4. Find the volume of a cube of side 3 cm :
(A) 27 cm³
(B) 9 cm³
(C) 81 cm³
(D) 3 cm³
5. If \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta DEF\) and \(\angle A = 48^\circ\), then \(\angle D =\)
(A) 48°
(B) 83°
(C) 49°
(D) 132°
6. AP is a tangent at A drawn to the circle with centre O from an external point P. \(OP = 12 \text{ cm}\) and \(\angle OPA = 30^\circ\), then the radius of a circle is
(A) 12 cm
(B) \(6\sqrt{3}\) cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) \(12\sqrt{3}\) cm
7. Seg AB is parallel to X-axis and co-ordinates of the point A are \((1,3)\), then the co-ordinates of the point B can be
(A) \((-3,1)\)
(B) \((5,1)\)
(C) \((3,0)\)
(D) \((-5,3)\)
8. The value of \(2\tan 45^\circ - 2\sin 30^\circ\) is
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 1/2
(D) 3/4
9. Some question and their alternative answer are given. Select the correct alternative.
If a, b, and c are sides of a triangle and \(a^2 + b^2 = c^2\), name the type of triangle.
(A) Obtuse angled triangle
(B) Acute angled triangle
(C) Right-angled triangle
(D) Equilateral triangle
10. Chords AB and CD of a circle intersect inside the circle at point E. If \(AE = 4, EB = 10, CE = 8\), then find ED.
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
11. Co-ordinates of origin are ______.
(A) (0, 0)
(B) (0, 1)
(C) (1, 0)
(D) (1, 1)
12. If radius of the base of cone is 7 cm and height is 24 cm, then find its slant height.
(A) 23 cm
(B) 26 cm
(C) 31 cm
(D) 25 cm
13. Out of the dates given below which date constitutes a Pythagorean triplet?
(A) 15/8/17
(B) 16/8/16
(C) 3/5/17
(D) 4/9/15
14. Four alternative answers for the following question are given. Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet: \(\sin\theta \times \text{cosec}\theta =\)
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1/2
(D) \(\sqrt{2}\)
15. Four alternative answers for the following question are given. Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet:
Slope of X-axis is .
(A) 1
(B) –1
(C) 0
(D) Cannot be determined
16. Four alternative answers for the following question are given. Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet:
A circle having radius 3 cm, then the length of its largest chord is .
(A) 1.5 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 6 cm
(D) 9 cm
Solve the Following Questions
1. The ratio of corresponding sides of similar triangles is 3:5, then find the ratio of their areas.
2. Find the diagonal of a square whose side is 10 cm.
3. \(\square ABCD\) is cyclic. If \(\angle B=110^\circ\), then find measure of \(\angle D\).
4. Find the slope of the line passing through the points \(A(2, 3)\) and \(B(4, 7)\).
5. In the figure, 'O' is the centre of the circle, seg PS is a tangent segment and S is the point of contact. Line PR is a secant.
If \(PQ = 3.6, QR = 6.4\), find PS.
6. In \(\Delta PQR\), \(NM \parallel RQ\). If \(PM = 15, MQ = 10, NR = 8\), then find PN.
7. In \(\Delta MNP\), \(\angle MNP = 90^\circ\), seg \(NQ \perp\) seg MP. If \(MQ = 9\), \(QP = 4\), then find NQ.
8. In the figure, M is the centre of the circle and seg KL is a tangent segment. L is a point of contact. If \(MK = 12\), \(KL = 6\sqrt{3}\), then find the radius of the circle.
9. Find the co-ordinates of midpoint of the segment joining the points (22,20) and (0,16).
10. A person is standing at a distance of 80 metres from a Church and looking at its top. The angle of elevation is of \(45^\circ\). Find the height of the Church.
11. In the given figure, X is any point in the interior of the triangle. Point X is joined to the vertices of triangle. seg \(PQ \parallel\) seg DE, seg \(QR \parallel\) seg EF. Complete the activity and prove that seg \(PR \parallel\) seg DF.
12. If \(A(6,1), B(8,2), C(9,4)\) and \(D(7,3)\) are the vertices of \(\square ABCD\), show that \(\square ABCD\) is a parallelogram.
13. In \(\Delta PQR\), point S is the mid-point of side QR. If \(PQ = 11\), \(PR = 17, PS = 13\), find QR.
14. Prove that, tangent segments drawn from an external point to the circle are congruent.
15. Draw a circle with radius 4.1 cm. Construct tangents to the circle from a point at a distance 7.3 cm from the centre.
16. A metal cuboid of measures \(16 \text{ cm} \times 11 \text{ cm} \times 10 \text{ cm}\) was melted to make coins. How many coins were made, if the thickness and diameter of each coin was 2 mm and 2 cm respectively? (\(\pi = 3.14\))
17. In \(\Delta ABC\), PQ is a line segment intersecting AB at P and AC at Q such that seg \(PQ \parallel\) seg BC. If PQ divides \(\Delta ABC\) into two equal parts having equal areas, find \(\frac{BP}{AB}\).
18. Draw a circle of radius 2.7 cm and draw a chord PQ of length 4.5 cm. Draw tangents at points P and Q without using centre.
19. In the figure given above \(\square ABCD\) is a square of side 50 m. Points P,Q,R,S are midpoints of side AB, side BC, side CD, side AD respectively. Find area of shaded region.
20. Circles with centres A, B and C touch each other externally. If AB = 3cm, BC = 3cm, CA=4cm, then find the radii of each circle.
21. If \(\sin\theta + \sin^2\theta = 1\), show that: \(\cos^2\theta + \cos^4\theta = 1\).
22. In \(\Delta ABC\), \(\angle ABC = 90^\circ\), \(\angle BAC = \angle BCA = 45^\circ\). If \(AC = 9\sqrt{2}\), then find the value of AB.
23. Chord AB and chord CD of a circle with centre O are congruent. If \(m(\text{arc}AB) = 120^\circ\), then find the \(m(\text{arc}CD)\).
24. Find the Y-co-ordinate of the centroid of a triangle whose vertices are \((4,-3), (7,5)\) and \((-2,1)\).
25. If \(\sin\theta = \cos\theta\), then what will be the measure of angle \(\theta\)?
26. In the above figure, seg AC and seg BD intersect each other in point P. If \(\frac{AP}{CP} = \frac{BP}{DP}\), then complete the following activity to prove \(\Delta ABP \sim \Delta CDP\).
27. In the above figure, \(\square ABCD\) is a rectangle. If \(AB = 5\), \(AC = 13\), then complete the following activity to find BC.
28. Complete the following activity to prove : \(\cot\theta + \tan\theta = \text{cosec}\theta \times \sec\theta\)
29. If \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta PQR, AB : PQ = 4:5\) and \(A(\Delta PQR) = 125 \text{ cm}^2\), then find \(A(\Delta ABC)\).
30. In the above figure, \(m(\text{arcDXE}) = 105^\circ, m(\text{arcAYC}) = 47^\circ\), then find the measure of \(\angle DBE\).
31. Draw a circle of radius 3.2 cm and centre 'O'. Take any point P on it. Draw tangent to the circle through point P using the centre of the circle.
32. If \(\sin\theta = \frac{11}{61}\), then find the value of \(\cos\theta\) using trigonometric identity.
33. In \(\Delta ABC, AB = 9 \text{ cm}, BC = 40 \text{ cm}, AC = 41 \text{ cm}\). State whether \(\Delta ABC\) is a right-angled triangle or not? Write reason.
34. In the above figure, chord PQ and chord RS intersect each other at point T. If \(\angle STQ = 58^\circ\) and \(\angle PSR = 24^\circ\), then complete the following activity to verify : \(\angle STQ = \frac{1}{2} [m(\text{arcPR}) + m(\text{arcSQ})]\)
35. Complete the following activity to find the co-ordinates of point P which divides seg AB in the ratio 3:1 where \(A(4, -3)\) and \(B(8,5)\).
36. In \(\Delta ABC\), seg \(XY \parallel\) side AC. If \(2AX = 3BX\) and \(XY = 9\), then find the value of AC.
37. Prove that "Opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary."
38. \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta PQR\). In \(\Delta ABC, AB = 5.4 \text{ cm}, BC = 4.2 \text{ cm}, AC = 6.0 \text{ cm}, AB : PQ = 3 : 2\), then construct \(\Delta ABC\) and \(\Delta PQR\).
39. Show that: \(\frac{\tan A}{(1 + \tan^2 A)^2} + \frac{\cot A}{(1 + \cot^2 A)^2} = \sin A \times \cos A\)
40. \(\square ABCD\) is a parallelogram. Point P is the midpoint of side CD. seg BP intersects diagonal AC at point X, then prove that : \(3AX = 2AC\)
41. In the above figure, seg AB and seg AD are tangent segments drawn to a circle with centre C from exterior point A, then prove that : \(\angle A = \frac{1}{2} [m(\text{arcBYD}) - m(\text{arcBXD})]\)
42. Find the co-ordinates of centroid of a triangle if points \(D(-7,6), E(8,5)\) and \(F(2,-2)\) are the mid-points of the sides of that triangle.
43. If a and b are natural numbers and \(a > b\). If \((a^2 + b^2), (a^2 - b^2)\) and \(2ab\) are the sides of the triangle, then prove that the triangle is right angled. Find out two Pythagorean triplets by taking suitable values of a and b.
44. Construct two concentric circles with centre O with radii 3 cm and 5 cm. Construct tangent to a smaller circle from any point A on the larger circle. Measure and write the length of tangent segment. Calculate the length of tangent segment using Pythagoras theorem.
45. If \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta PQR\) and \(\frac{A(\Delta ABC)}{A(\Delta PQR)} = \frac{16}{25}\), then find \(AB : PQ\).
46. In \(\Delta RST, \angle S = 90^\circ, \angle T = 30^\circ, RT = 12 \text{ cm}\), then find RS.
47. If radius of a circle is 5 cm, then find the length of longest chord of a circle.
48. Find the distance between the points \(O(0,0)\) and \(P(3,4)\).
49. In the figure, \(\angle L = 35^\circ\), find: i. m(arc MN) ii. m(arcMLN)
50. Show that, \(\cot\theta + \tan\theta = \text{cosec}\theta \times \sec\theta\).
51. Find the surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm.
52. In trapezium ABCD, side AB \(\parallel\) side PQ \(\parallel\) side DC, \(AP = 15, PD = 12, QC = 14\), Find BQ.
53. Find the length diagonal of a rectangle whose length is 35 cm and breadth is 12 cm.
54. In the given figure, points G,D,E, and F are concyclic points of a circle with centre C. \(\angle ECF = 70^\circ, m(\text{arcDGF}) = 200^\circ\). Find m(arcDE) and m(arc DEF).
55. Show that points \(A(-1,-1), B(0,1), C(1,3)\) are collinear.
56. A person is standing at a distance of 50 m from a temple looking at its top. The angle of elevation is \(45^\circ\). Find the height of the temple.
57. In \(\Delta PQR\) seg PM is a median. Angle bisectors of \(\angle PMQ\) and \(\angle PMR\) intersect side PQ and side PR in points X and Y respectively. Prove that \(XY \parallel QR\). Complete the proof by filling in the boxes.
58. Find the coordinates of point P where P is the midpoint of a line segment AB with A(–4, 2) and B(6, 2).
59. In \(\Delta ABC\), seg AP is a median. If \(BC = 18, AB^2 + AC^2 = 260\), Find AP.
60. Prove the following theorem: Angles inscribed in the same arc are congruent.
61. Draw a circle with a radius of 3.3 cm. Draw a chord PQ of length 6.6 cm. Draw tangents to the circle at points P and Q. Write your observation about the tangents.
62. The radii of the ends of a frustum are 14 cm and 6 cm respectively and its height is 6 cm. Find its curved surface area.
63. In \(\Delta ABC\), seg \(DE \parallel\) side BC. If \(2A(\Delta ADE) = A(\square DBCE)\), find \(AB : AD\) and show that \(BC = \sqrt{3}DE\).
64. \(\Delta SHR \sim \Delta SVU\). In \(\Delta SHR, SH = 4.5 \text{ cm}, HR = 5.2 \text{ cm}, SR = 5.8 \text{ cm}\) and \(\frac{SH}{SV} = \frac{3}{5}\). Construct \(\Delta SVU\).
65. An ice cream pot has a right circular cylindrical shape. The radius of the base is 12cm and the height is 7 cm. This pot is completely filled with ice cream. The entire ice cream is given to the students in the form of right circular ice cream cones, having a diameter of 4 cm and a height is 3.5 cm. If each student is given one cone, how many students can be served?
66. A circle touches side BC at point P of the \(\Delta ABC\), from outside of the triangle. Further extended lines AC and AB are tangents to the circle at N and M respectively. Prove that: \(AM = \frac{1}{2} (\text{Perimeter of } \Delta ABC)\)
67. Eliminate \(\theta\) if \(x = r\cos\theta\) and \(y = r\sin\theta\).
68. If \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta PQR\) and \(AB : PQ = 2:3\), then find the value of \(\frac{A(\Delta ABC)}{A(\Delta PQR)}\).
69. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm touch each other externally. Find the distance between their centres.
70. Find the side of a square whose diagonal is \(10\sqrt{2} \text{ cm}\).
71. Angle made by the line with the positive direction of X-axis is given. Find the slope of the line. \(45^\circ\)
72. In the above figure, \(\angle ABC\) is inscribed in arc ABC. If \(\angle ABC = 60^\circ\). find \(m\angle AOC\).
73. Find the value of \(\sin^2\theta + \cos^2\theta\)
74. In the figure given above, \(\square ABCD\) is a square and a circle is inscribed in it. All sides of a square touch the circle. If \(AB = 14 \text{ cm}\), find the area of shaded region.
75. The radius of a sector of a circle is 3.5 cm and length of its arc is 2.2 cm. Find the area of the sector.
76. Find the length of the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle if remaining sides are 9 cm and 12 cm.
77. In the given figure, \(m(\text{arcNS}) = 125^\circ\), \(m(\text{arcEF}) = 37^\circ\), find the measure \(\angle NMS\).
78. Find the slope of the line passing through the points \(A(2,3)\) and \(B(4,7)\).
79. Find the surface area of a sphere of radius 7 cm.
80. In \(\Delta ABC\), ray BD bisects \(\angle ABC\), \(A-D-C\), seg \(DE \parallel\) side BC, \(A-E-B\), then for showing \(\frac{AB}{BC} = \frac{AE}{EB}\), complete the following activity:
81. Determine whether the points are collinear. \(A(1, -3), B(2, -5), C(-4,7)\)
82. \(\Delta ABC \sim \Delta LMN\). In \(\Delta ABC, AB = 5.5 \text{ cm}, BC = 6 \text{ cm}, CA = 4.5 \text{ cm}\). Construct \(\Delta ABC\) and \(\Delta LMN\) such that \(\frac{BC}{MN} = \frac{5}{4}\).
83. In \(\Delta PQR\), seg PM is a median, \(PM = 9\) and \(PQ^2 + PR^2 = 290\). Find the length of QR.
84. Prove that, if a line parallel to a side of a triangle intersects the other sides in two district points, then the line divides those sides in proportion.
85. \(\frac{1}{\sin^2\theta} - \frac{1}{\cos^2\theta} - \frac{1}{\tan^2\theta} - \frac{1}{\cot^2\theta} - \frac{1}{\sec^2\theta} - \frac{1}{\text{cosec}^2\theta} = -3\), then find the value of \(\theta\).
86. A cylinder of radius 12 cm contains water up to the height 20 cm. A spherical iron ball is dropped into the cylinder and thus water level raised by 6.75 cm. What is the radius of iron ball?
87. Draw a circle with centre O having radius 3 cm. Draw tangent segments PA and PB through the point P outside the circle such that \(\angle APB = 70^\circ\).
88. \(\square ABCD\) is trapezium, \(AB \parallel CD\) diagonals of trapezium intersects in point P.
Write the answers of the following questions:
a. Draw the figure using the given information.
b. Write any one pair of alternate angles and opposite angles.
c. Write the names of similar triangles with the test of similarity.
89. AB is a chord of a circle with centre O. AOC is diameter of circle, AT is a tangent at A.
Write answers of the following questions:
a. Draw the figure using the given information.
b. Find the measures of \(\angle CAT\) and \(\angle ABC\) with reasons.
c. Whether \(\angle CAT\) and \(\angle ABC\) are congruent? Justify your answer.
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Title: Mathematics Top 200 Important Questions for Board Exam 2026

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Search Description: Top 200 Mathematics questions for Board Exam 2026. Important MCQs and solved problems for Geometry and Algebra Class 10.