Showing posts with label SCIENCE. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SCIENCE. Show all posts

CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Paper 01 Solutions 2026

Sample Paper 01 Solutions

Class X 2024-25 Science (086)

Time: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 80
Download PDF
General Instructions:
  1. All questions would be compulsory. However, an internal choice of approximately 33% would be provided. 50% marks are to be allotted to competency-based questions.
  2. Section A would have 16 simple/complex MCQs and 04 Assertion-Reasoning type questions carrying 1 mark each.
  3. Section B would have 6 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 02 marks each.
  4. Section C would have 7 Short Answer (SA) type questions carrying 03 marks each.
  5. Section D would have 3 Long Answer (LA) type questions carrying 05 marks each.
  6. Section E would have 3 source based/case based/passage based/integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with sub-parts of the values of 1/2/3 marks.
SECTION-A

Question 1 to 16 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions.

1.
Identify '\(x\)', '\(y\)', and '\(z\)' in the following balanced reaction: $$ x Al(s) + y O_2(g) \rightarrow z Al_2O_3(s) $$
(a) 4, 3, 2
(b) 2, 1, 1
(c) 4, 2, 2
(d) 2, 3, 2
Ans: (a) 4, 3, 2
The balanced reaction is: \( 4 Al(s) + 3 O_2(g) \rightarrow 2 Al_2O_3(s) \)
2.
4 moles of aluminum react with 3 moles of oxygen to form 2 moles of aluminum oxide. Consider the following table:
Substance pH
Lemon 2.3
Battery acid \(x\)
Sea water 8.5
Apple 3.1
The value of \(x\) in above table is:
(a) 0
(b) 1.3
(c) 2.5
(d) 1.9
Ans: (a) 0
The value of \(x\) is 0. The value of pH of battery acid is zero. pH may be defined as a number by which negative power of 10 has to be raised in order to express the concentration of hydrogen ion of solution.
3.
Magnesium ribbon is rubbed with sand paper before making it to burn. The reason of rubbing the ribbon is to:
(a) remove moisture condensed over the surface of ribbon.
(b) generate heat due to exothermic reaction.
(c) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium.
(d) mix silicon from sand paper (silicon dioxide) with magnesium for lowering ignition temperature of the ribbon.
Ans: (c) remove magnesium oxide formed over the surface of magnesium.
When magnesium is exposed to air, a layer of oxide is formed on its surface and it gets corroded. So, as to remove the layer of oxide formed (MgO), magnesium ribbon is rubbed.
4.
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different angles of incidence. He analyzes each diagram and draws the following conclusion:
I. On entering prism, the light ray bends towards its base.
II. Light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
III. Emergent ray bends at certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
IV. While emerging from the prism, the light ray bends towards the vertex of the prism.
Out of the above inferences, the correct ones are:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and IV
Ans: (a) I, II and III
Incident ray and the emergent ray on passing through the prism follows the different path. On refraction of a ray of light through the prism, the emergent ray always bends at an angle with the incident ray called angle of deviation. Light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
5.
Which of the following structures is involved in gaseous exchange in woody stem of a plant?
(a) Stomata
(b) Guard cell
(c) Lenticel
(d) Epidermis
Ans: (c) Lenticel
In woody stems, there is a special organ called lenticels which helps in the respiratory exchange of gases. Lenticels are the tissue which consists of large inter-cellular spaces in the periderm layer. The tissues are porous in nature and functions as a pore which helps in direct exchange of gases in the woody stems.
6.
A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast is that
(a) They reproduce asexually
(b) They are all unicellular
(c) They reproduce only sexually
(d) They are all multicellular
Ans: (a) they reproduce asexually
Amoeba, Spirogyra, and Yeast all reproduce by the asexual method. Amoeba reproduces by binary fission, Spirogyra by fragmentation, and Yeast by the budding method. All are unicellular organisms.
7.
Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) on complete combustion gave \(CO_2\) and water. It shows that the results are in accordance with the law of conservation of mass. Then, the coefficient of oxygen is equal to
(a) 7/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 9/2
Ans: (a) 7/2
Balanced chemical equation w.r.t. law of conservation of mass.
\( C_2H_6 + \frac{7}{2}O_2 \longrightarrow 2CO_2 + 3H_2O \)
The coefficient of \(C_2H_6\) is 1, \(\frac{7}{2}\) for \(O_2\), 2 for \(CO_2\) and 3 for \(H_2O\).
8.
When white light passes through the achromatic combination of prisms, then what is observed?
(a) Deviation
(b) Dispersion
(c) Both deviation and dispersion
(d) Atmospheric refraction
Ans: (a) Deviation
When white light passes through a prism It disperses into band of seven colours. But when two prism are combined in such a way that sum of angular dispersions of crown glass prism and flint glass prism is zero then such a combination is achromatic combination of prisms. When white light passes through achromatic combination of prisms, internally dispersed components of white light from crown glass prism refract and meet together at the outer surface edge of flint glass prism, so the refracted light from the achromatic combination of prisms become white light again with deviation only without any dispersion.
9.
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long duration turns grey due to
Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true?
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of silver chloride.
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride.
(iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver chloride.
(iv) oxidation of silver chloride.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 4
Ans: (a) Only 1
Silver chloride decomposes to silver in presence of sunlight hence turns grey.
10.
Magnesium reacts with hot water and steam both. Human body stores energy in form of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Insulin
(c) Glycogen
(d) Fructose
Ans: (c) glycogen
Carbohydrates, such as sugar and starch, are readily broken down into glucose, the body's principal energy source. Glucose can be used immediately as fuel, or can be sent to the liver and muscles and stored as glycogen.
11.
No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be-
(a) Plane
(b) Concave
(c) Convex
(d) Either plane or convex
Ans: (d) Either plane or convex
No matter whatever is the position of object, a convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image of the object placed in front of it, whereas a plane mirror always forms a virtual, erect and of the same size image as that of the object placed in front of it. Therefore, the given mirror could be either plane or convex.
12.
What must be preserved in an ecosystem, if the system needs to be maintained?
(a) Producers and carnivores
(b) Producers and decomposers
(c) Carnivores and decomposers
(d) Herbivores and carnivores
Ans: (b) producers and decomposers
The most important characteristics of any ecosystem are energy flow and cycling of materials. Producers and decomposers are indispensable for any ecosystem. Producers trap solar energy and convert it into usable form as carbohydrates which are passed on to successive levels through food chains and food webs. The other important characteristic of the ecosystem is cycling of materials. This is called as biogeochemical cycles, in which decomposers are most important because they will release the mineral nutrients back to the environment.
13.
Posture and balance of the body is controlled by
(a) cerebrum
(b) cerebellum
(c) medulla
(d) pons
Ans: (b) cerebellum
Cerebellum is the region which plays a major role in coordination of voluntary motor movement, balance and equilibrium and muscle tone. Cerebellar damage causes disorder in coordination, speed, posture and motor learning.
14.
A student determines the focal length of a device \(X\), by focusing the image of a far off object on the screen positioned as shown in figure. The device \(X\) is a
[Diagram showing rays reflecting off a mirror onto a screen]
(a) Convex lens
(b) Concave lens
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Concave mirror
Ans: (d) Concave mirror
A concave mirror alone can form real image of distant object on the screen held in position, as shown in figure.
15.
Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
Ans: (b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
Magnesium does not react with cold water to give magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen.
\( Mg(s) + H_2O(l) \longrightarrow Mg(OH)_2 + H_2(g) \uparrow \)
16.
Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because
(i) mineral acids are completely ionized.
(ii) carboxylic acids are completely ionized
(iii) mineral acids are partially ionized
(iv) carboxylic acids are partially ionized
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: (a) (i) and (iv)
Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because mineral acids are completely ionised whereas carboxylic acids are partially ionised.
Question no. 17 to 20 are Assertion-Reasoning based questions.
17.
Assertion : Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction.
Reason : Energy gets released in the process of photosynthesis.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are False.
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction because energy in the form of sunlight is absorbed by the green plants.
18.
Assertion : Our body maintains blood sugar level.
Reason : Pancreas secretes insulin which helps to regulate blood sugar levels in the body.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Ans: (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
Pancreas secretes insulin which helps to regulate blood sugar levels in the body. If the sugar level in blood rises, they are detected by the cells of the pancreas which respond by producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls, insulin secretion is reduced.
19.
Assertion : Artificial kidney is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis.
Reason : Reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Ans: (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Kidney failure can be managed by artificial kidney. It is a device used to remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood through dialysis. Artificial kidney is different from natural kidney as the process of reabsorption does not occur in artificial kidney.
20.
Assertion : The product of resistivity and conductivity of a conductor depends on the material of the conductor.
Reason : Because each of resistivity and conductivity depends on the material of the conductor.
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
Ans: (c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
\( \text{Conductivity} = \frac{1}{\text{Resistivity}} \)
\( \text{Conductivity} \times \text{resistivity} = 1 \)
SECTION-B

Question no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions.

21.
If you keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, what type of movements would be shown by the shoot and root after two or three days. Why?
Ans:
If we keep the potted plant horizontally for 2-3 days, shoots may grow upwards and away from the earth while roots always grow downwards. It happens because shoots are negatively geotropic and positively phototropic while roots are positively geotropic.
22.
What are the rules of inheritance?
Ans:
On the basis of his experiments, Mendel established some rules which are called the rules of inheritance. They are:
(i) Law of Dominance,
(ii) Law of Segregation and
(iii) Law of Independent Assortment.
23.
A. What prevents the metals such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc and lead from oxidation at ordinary temperature?
Ans:
At ordinary temperature, the surface of metals such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc and lead, etc., are covered with a thin layer of oxide. The protective oxide layer prevents the metals from further oxidation.
or
B. Explain why sodium hydroxide solution cannot be kept in aluminium containers? Write equation for the reaction that may take for the same.
Ans:
Aluminium is an amphoteric metal. It reacts with NaOH to form \(NaAlO_2\). So, NaOH cannot be stored in an aluminium container.
\( 2Al + 2NaOH \rightarrow 2NaAlO_2 + H_2(g) \)
24.
What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes of pollination in flowering plants.
Ans:
Pollination: Is the process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower. If this transfer of pollen occurs in the same flower or flowers of same plant, it is referred to as self-pollination whereas if the pollen is transferred from one flower to another of same species, it is known as cross-pollination.
25.
A. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two differences between the two images.
Ans:
(i) When the object is placed in front of the mirror:
(a) between the pole and focus.
(b) between the focus and centre of curvature.
(ii) In case (a) the image is virtual and erect.
(iii) In case (b) the image is real and inverted.
or
B. What is the difference between virtual images produced by concave, plane and convex mirror?
Ans:
Virtual image produced by concave mirror is magnified, that produced by plane mirror is of the same size and the virtual image produced by convex mirror is diminished.
26.
In the cartoon below, a rabbit is shown eating grass and later a fox is seen hunting the rabbit. In the next frame, after the fox dies, mushrooms and earthworms are feeding on its body. What role do the rabbit and fox play in the food chain?
Ans:
(i) The rabbit is a primary consumer (herbivore) because it eats plants (grass).
(ii) The fox is a secondary consumer (carnivore) because it preys on the rabbit.
SECTION-C

Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer questions.

27.
Aman creates a compact device that uses an organic compound (\(C_3H_8O\)) reacting with sodium metal to produce hydrogen gas. This hydrogen powers a fuel cell, providing a clean and immediate energy source. Deduce the possible structure of the compound. Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
Ans:
\( 2CH_3CH_2CH_2OH + 2Na \longrightarrow 2CH_3CH_2CH_2O^-Na^+ + H_2(g) \)
(Propanol) -> (Sodium propoxide)
The possible structure of compound is propanol.
$$ H-C(H)(H)-C(H)(H)-C(H)(H)-O-H $$
28.
A. Our government launches campaigns to provide information about AIDS prevention, testing and treatment by putting posters, conducting radio shows and using other agencies of advertisements. To which category of diseases AIDS belongs? Name and explain. What is its causative organism? Also give two more examples of such diseases.
Ans:
AIDS belongs to STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases). The diseases which are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called sexually transmitted disease.
Its causative organism is a virus — HIV.
Some examples are:
(i) Gonorrhoea caused by bacteria
(ii) Syphilis caused by bacteria
(iii) Warts
or
B. Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and the product of fertilisation in a flower.
Ans:
(i) The transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination whereas fertilisation is the process when the male gamete present in pollen grain joins the female gamete present in ovule.
(ii) Pollination is an external mechanism whereas fertilisation is an internal mechanism which takes place inside the flower.
Site of fertilisation in flower is ovary.
Product of fertilisation in flower is zygote.
29.
Explain the following chemical changes, giving one example in each case:
(i) Displacement or substitution,
(ii) Dissociation,
(iii) Isomerisation reaction.
Ans:
(i) Displacement or substitution reaction: The reaction in which an atom or a group of atoms in the molecule is replaced by another atom or a group of atoms is called displacement or substitution reaction. For example, zinc displaces copper from its sulphate solution.
\( CuSO_4 + Zn \longrightarrow ZnSO_4 + Cu \)
(ii) Dissociation reaction: When a substance breaks up into positive and negative ions in water, it is called dissociation reaction. For example, acetic acid in water dissociates into \(CH_3COO^-\) and \(H^+\) ions.
\( CH_3COOH + H_2O \rightleftharpoons CH_3COO^- + H_3O^+ \)
(iii) Isomerisation reaction: When a compound changes into another compound by simple rearrangement of atoms, it is called an isomerisation reaction. For example,
\( NH_4CNO \xrightarrow{\text{heat}} NH_2CONH_2 \) (Ammonium cyanate to Urea)
30.
Why does a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after reflection, is reflected back along the same path?
Ans:
It is because the incident ray falls on the mirror along the normal to the reflecting surface. Hence the angle of incidence is zero and according to law of reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection. Therefore the reflected ray back along the same path.
31.
(i) A compound lens is made of two lenses in contact having powers \(+12.5 D\) and \(-2.5 D\). Find the focal length and power of the combination.
(ii) The magnification produced by a mirror is \(+1\). What does this mean?
Ans:
(i) \( P = P_1 + P_2 = 12.5 + (-2.5) = 10 D \)
\( f = \frac{1}{P} = \frac{1}{10} = 0.1 \text{ m} \)
(ii) '+' sign means image is virtual and erect. 1 means it is of the same size.
32.
In the given circuit, find:
(i) Total resistance of the network of resistors
(ii) Current through ammeter \(A\)
[Circuit description: A 6V battery. Two parallel branches. Branch 1 has \(4\Omega\) and \(2\Omega\) in series. Branch 2 has \(3\Omega\) and \(3\Omega\) in series.]
Ans:
(i) In the given circuit diagram \(4 \Omega\) and \(2 \Omega\) resistances are connected in series combination and \(3 \Omega\) and \(3 \Omega\) resistance are also connected in the series combination.
\( R_1 = 4 + 2 = 6 \Omega \)
\( R_2 = 3 + 3 = 6 \Omega \)
Now the equivalent resistance of circuit
\( \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} = \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{6} = \frac{2}{6} \)
\( R_{eq} = \frac{6}{2} = 3 \Omega \)
(ii) According to ohm's law,
\( V = IR_{eq} \)
\( I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{6}{3} = 2 A \)
33.
(i) How many eggs are produced every month by either of the ovaries in a human female? Where does fertilization take place in the female reproductive system?
(ii) What happens in case the eggs released by the ovary are not fertilized?
Ans:
(i) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries. Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube.
(ii) In case the egg released by the ovary is not fertilized, it lives for about one day. Since the uterus prepares itself every month to receive a fertilized egg its lining becomes thick and spongy and since it is not required anymore, this lining slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucous. This is known as menstruation.
SECTION-D

Question no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.

34.
Discuss the physical properties of non-metals.
Discuss the exceptions in the properties of metals and non-metals.
Ans:
Physical properties of non-metals are following:
(i) Non-metals are brittle: They break into pieces when hammered or stretched, i.e., they are not malleable.
(ii) Non-metals are non-ductile: These cannot be drawn into wires.
(iii) Non-metals are bad conductors of heat and electricity: Non-metals do not have free electrons. There is one exception graphite, which is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
(iv) Non-metals are non-lustrous and cannot be polished: The exceptions are graphite and iodine which are lustrous.
(v) Non-metals are generally soft: Except diamond (allotropic form of carbon) which is the hardest substance known, non-metals are soft.
(vi) Non-metals generally have low melting and boiling points: Except graphite which has high melting point, non-metals have weak intra-molecular force.
(vii) Non-metals have low densities: Most non-metals are light.

Exceptions in the properties of metals and non-metals:
(i) All metals except mercury exist as solids at room temperature. Metals have high melting points but gallium and caesium have very low melting points. These two metals will melt if they are kept on palm.
(ii) Iodine is a non-metal but it is lustrous.
(iii) Carbon is a non-metal that can exist in different forms. Each form is called an allotrope. Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest natural substance known and has a very high melting and boiling points. Graphite, another allotrope of carbon, is a conductor of electricity.
(iv) Alkali metals (lithium, sodium, potassium) are so soft that they can be cut with a knife. They have low densities and low melting points.
35.
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population. Mention two factors that determine the size of population.
OR
How do the following organisms reproduce by asexual methods?
(i) Euglena (ii) Spirogyra (iii) Ginger (iv) Chrysanthemum (v) Strawberry (vi) Mango
Ans:
(i) Three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population:
(a) One category is the use of a mechanical barrier, e.g., condoms.
(b) Another category of contraceptive acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilization doesn't occur, e.g., oral pills.
(c) Use of intrauterine device like copper-T to prevent pregnancy.
(ii) Two factors that determine the size of population:
(a) Rate of birth;
(b) Rate of death.

OR
(i) Euglena — Binary fission.
(ii) Spirogyra — Fragmentation.
(iii) Ginger — Natural vegetative propagation by stems.
(iv) Chrysanthemum — Artificial vegetative propagation by cutting.
(v) Strawberry — Artificial vegetative propagation by layering.
(vi) Mango — Artificial vegetative propagation by grafting.
36.
A household uses the following electric appliances:
(i) refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 hours each day.
(ii) two electric fans of rating 80 W each for 6 hours daily.
(iii) six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 hours daily.
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for month of June, if cost of electrical energy is ₹3.00 per unit.
OR
The values of current \(I\) flowing in a given resistor for the corresponding values of potential difference \(V\) across the resistor are given below:
\(I\) (ampere): 0.5, 1.0, 2.0, 3.0, 4.0
\(V\) (volt): 1.6, 3.4, 6.7, 10.2, 13.2
Plot a graph between \(V\) and \(I\) and calculate the resistance of the resistor.
Ans:
Energy consumed per day by refrigerator = \( 0.4 \text{ kW} \times 10 \text{ h} = 4 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed per day by fans = \( 2 \times 0.08 \text{ kW} \times 6 = 0.96 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed by lights = \( 6 \times 0.018 \text{ kW} \times 6 \text{ h} = 0.648 \text{ kWh} \)
Total energy consumed per day = \( 4 + 0.96 + 0.648 = 5.608 \text{ kWh} \)
Energy consumed in 30 days = \( 30 \times 5.608 = 168.24 \text{ kWh} \)
Cost of 168.24 units @ ₹3.00 = \( 168.24 \times 3 = \text{₹}504.72 \)

OR
From the graph (plotting V vs I), we can take values of \(V\) and \(I\).
\( \Delta V = (6.7 - 3.4) = 3.3 \text{ Volt} \)
\( \Delta I = (2.0 - 1.0) = 1.0 \text{ A} \)
\( R = \frac{V}{I} = \frac{3.3}{1.0} = 3.3 \Omega \)
So, Resistance = \( 3.3 \Omega \) (ohm)
SECTION-E

Question no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions.

37.
After coming from playground, Tanu feels very hungry. But still some more time was required by her mother to cook food. While waiting on dining table Tanu was playing with her spoon. All of sudden she observed two different orientations of her face when she looked her face from both sides of spoon. She was confused why the orientation of her face changed in two cases.
(i) Which type of image is formed on the both surface of spoon?
(ii) As tanu move concave surface of spoon towards her face, again she find that there comes a point (provided the spoon is big enough) where her image flips from inverted to upright. State the condition under which it happens? Is this image real or virtual?
(iii) The given ray diagram depict the correct explanation of the image formed by one surface of the spoon. Name the surface which can form the image as depicted in given ray diagram?
OR
(iv) Tanu was trying to form image using a concave mirror. She got an inverted and real image of same size of the object. Given figure shows four possible positions of the image formed. Figure out the correct position and justify it.
Ans:
(i) Erect image in convex surface and inverted image in concave surface.
(ii) When object is place between focus and pole of the mirror, it forms virtual and erect image. So as we move concave surface of spoon towards our face as soon as our face comes between principal focus and pole we observe erect and virtual image of our face.
(iii) Convex surface of the spoon will form the image as depicted in the given ray diagram.
(iv) Image A is the correct image as concave mirror forms real and inverted image of the same size of the object when object is placed at centre of curvature of the mirror.
38.
Acids, bases and salts are three main categories of chemical compounds. These have certain definite properties which distinguish one class from the other. The acids are sour in taste while bases are bitter in taste... (content on indicators)...
(i) Give two examples each of natural and artificial indicators.
(ii) An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which solution would reverse the change-ammonium hydroxide solution or hydrochloric acid?
(iii) What will be the change in colour when a few drops of phenolphthalein is added to a solution having pH 8.5.
OR
(iv) What is universal indicator?
Ans:
(i) Natural Indicators: Turmeric and red cabbage, Artificial Indicators: Methyl red and methyl orange.
(ii) Hydrochloric acid because adding excess acid to the base would turn blue litmus solution red.
(iii) It changes into pink.
(iv) Universal indicator is a mixture of dyes that changes colour gradually over a range of pH and is used in testing for acids and alkalis.
39.
Questions are based on the two table given below. Study these tables related to blood pressure level and answer the question that follow:
Table-A: Hypertension Guidelines (Normal: 120/80, High Stage 1: 130-139 / 80-90, etc.)
Table-B: BP of Patients X and Y at Morning, Afternoon, Evening.
(i) In the table B, at which time patent-Y have ideal normal blood pressure?
(ii) Identify the patient, which have hypertension stage-1 blood pressure?
(iii) Which Diet is the best for high blood pressure patient?
OR
(iv) What is the ideal blood pressure measurement of a human?
Ans:
(i) Afternoon (80-120)
(ii) Patient X (82-132) Evening
(iii) Grain and fruits
(iv) 80-120 mm Hg
Question Paper Page No. 1 Question Paper Page No. 2 Question Paper Page No. 3 Question Paper Page No. 4 Question Paper Page No. 5 Question Paper Page No. 6 Question Paper Page No. 7 Question Paper Page No. 8 Question Paper Page No. 9 Question Paper Page No. 10 Question Paper Page No. 11 Question Paper Page No. 12 For all your study Materials Visit : omtexclasses.com

Biology Board Question Paper Solution March 2020 Maharashtra Board

Biology Board Question Paper Solution

Maharashtra State Board - March 2020 (HSC Class 12)

Max. Marks: 70 | Time: 3 Hours

Section-A
Q.1. i.
Which of the following is most appropriate for thalassemia?
  • (A) decrease of either beta (β) or alpha (α) globin chain of HbA
  • (B) decrease of alpha (α) cells of pancreas
  • (C) decrease of WBC count
  • (D) decrease of blood platelets
Answer: (A) decrease of either beta (β) or alpha (α) globin chain of HbA
Q.1. ii.
Injury to _______ causes sudden death.
  • (A) cerebrum
  • (B) pons varolii
  • (C) medulla oblongata
  • (D) diencephalon
Answer: (C) medulla oblongata
Q.1. iii.
Name the smooth muscle of urinary bladder.
  • (A) cardiac muscle
  • (B) detrusor muscle
  • (C) dartos muscle
  • (D) gubernaculum
Answer: (B) detrusor muscle
Q.1. iv.
Identify the cell labelled 'A' in the T.S. of testis :
[Diagram: T.S. of testis showing seminiferous tubule. Label A points to large pyramidal cells extending from the basement membrane to the lumen, supporting developing sperm.]
  • (A) Leydig cell
  • (B) Basement membrane
  • (C) Sperm
  • (D) Sertoli cell
Answer: (D) Sertoli cell
Q.1. v.
_______ represents connecting link between amphibians and reptiles.
  • (A) Seymouria
  • (B) Archaeopteryx
  • (C) Ichthyostegia
  • (D) Archaeornis
Answer: (A) Seymouria
Q.1. vi.
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required for the formation of male gametophyte from pollen mother cell?
  • (A) 2 meiotic and 1 mitotic
  • (B) 1 meiotic and 1 mitotic
  • (C) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic
  • (D) 2 meiotic and 2 mitotic
Answer: (C) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic
Q.1. vii.
_______ is the common pathway for aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
  • (A) Krebs’ cycle
  • (B) ETS
  • (C) Calvin cycle
  • (D) Glycolysis
Answer: (D) Glycolysis
Q.1. viii.
Find the odd man out with respect to chemoautotrophs:
  • (A) Nitrosomonas
  • (B) Chromatium
  • (C) Thiobacillus
  • (D) Ferrobacillus
Answer: (B) Chromatium
(Reason: Chromatium is a photoautotroph, while others are chemoautotrophs.)
Q.1. ix.
Genotype of blood group ‘AB’ in human is _______.
  • (A) \(I^A I^B\)
  • (B) \(I^B i\)
  • (C) \(I^A I^A\)
  • (D) ii
Answer: (A) \(I^A I^B\)
Q.1. x.
Linker-DNA, connecting two successive nucleosomes, consists of _______.
  • (A) 146 base pairs
  • (B) 200 base pairs
  • (C) 160 base pairs
  • (D) 54 base pairs
Answer: (D) 54 base pairs

HSC Biology

Q.2.
Answer the following questions:

i. Where were the bones of jaws and teeth of Ramapithecus found?

Answer: The fossils (jaws and teeth) of Ramapithecus were found in the Shivalik Hills of India and in Kenya (Africa).

ii. In electrocardiogram, QRS complex stands for:

In electrocardiogram, QRS complex stands for:
[Diagram: ECG wave P-QRS-T]
Answer: The QRS complex stands for ventricular depolarization (spread of impulse from AV node to the wall of ventricles).

iii. Laxman has low secretion of ADH resulting in _______ type of diabetes.

Answer: Diabetes insipidus

iv. Name the region of retina where rods and cones are absent.

Answer: Blind spot (Optic disc)

v. Among biotic components, the micro consumers are called _______.

Answer: Decomposers (or Reducers)

vi. Identify ‘A’ in the chart given below:

Product Plant
(1) Nicotine Nicotiana tabacum
(2) Vincristin, Vinblastin ‘A’
Answer: ‘A’ is Catharanthus roseus (or Vinca rosea).

vii. The genotypic ratio 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1 is obtained in F2 generation. What will be the phenotypic ratio?

Answer: 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

viii. Define the term ‘recessive’.

Answer: A recessive allele is an allele that is not expressed in the presence of an alternative dominant allele. It expresses itself only in the homozygous condition (presence of two identical alleles) or in the absence of a dominant allele.
Section-B

Attempt any eight of the following questions:

Q.3.
Sketch and label angiospermic embryo sac.
Solution: Sketch and label angiospermic embryo sac
[Diagram: Sketch and label angiospermic embryo sac]

(Student should draw the 7-celled, 8-nucleate structure of the female gametophyte)

Labels required:

  • Chalazal end: Contains 3 Antipodal cells.
  • Central part: Large central cell with Secondary nucleus (or two Polar nuclei).
  • Micropylar end: Egg apparatus containing 1 Egg cell (Oosphere) and 2 Synergids.
  • Filiform apparatus: Inside synergids.
Q.4.
To avoid photorespiration, which anatomical peculiarities are shown by C4 plants?
Answer:

C4 plants show a specialized anatomy called Kranz anatomy to avoid photorespiration:

  1. Dimorphic Chloroplasts:
    • Mesophyll cells: Contain granal chloroplasts (with grana).
    • Bundle Sheath cells: Contain large, agranal chloroplasts (without grana).
  2. Concentric Arrangement: The bundle sheath cells form a wreath-like (Kranz) layer around the vascular bundles, surrounded by mesophyll cells.
  3. Thick Walls: Bundle sheath cells have thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange, concentrating CO2 internally.
Q.5.
Enlist the steps involved in rDNA technology.
Answer:
  1. Isolation of DNA (Genetic material) from the donor organism.
  2. Cutting of DNA at specific locations using Restriction Endonuclease enzymes.
  3. Amplification of the gene of interest using PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).
  4. Insertion of the Recombinant DNA (rDNA) into the host cell/organism using a vector.
  5. Selection and screening of transformed host cells.
  6. Obtaining the foreign gene product (downstream processing).
Q.6.
Define the terms:
i. Bio-patent
ii. Bio-piracy
Answer:

i. Bio-patent: It is a patent granted by the government to the inventor for biological entities (like strains of microorganisms, cell lines, genetically modified strains), DNA sequences, and biotechnological processes and products.

ii. Bio-piracy: It refers to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment.

Q.7.
Give the flow chart of central dogma.
Answer:
DNA \(\xrightarrow{\text{Transcription}}\) mRNA \(\xrightarrow{\text{Translation}}\) Protein

It can also be represented including Replication:

Replication \(\circlearrowleft\) DNA \(\rightarrow\) mRNA \(\rightarrow\) Polypeptide (Protein)
Q.8.
How will you identify that, F1 hybrid is homozygous or heterozygous? Explain it with a suitable example.
Answer:

We can identify the genotype of an F1 hybrid by performing a Test Cross. In a test cross, the F1 individual is crossed with the homozygous recessive parent.

Example: Consider height in pea plants (T = Tall, t = Dwarf).

  • Case 1 (Heterozygous): If F1 is Hybrid Tall (Tt):
    Cross: Tt (F1) × tt (Recessive parent)
    Progeny: 50% Tall (Tt) and 50% Dwarf (tt). Ratio 1:1.
    Conclusion: F1 is Heterozygous.
  • Case 2 (Homozygous): If F1 were Homozygous Tall (TT):
    Cross: TT × tt
    Progeny: 100% Tall (Tt).
    Conclusion: F1 is Homozygous.
Q.9.
Give any two contrasting traits studied by Mendel.
Answer:

(Any two from the seven pairs)

  1. Stem height: Tall vs. Dwarf
  2. Seed colour: Yellow vs. Green
  3. Seed shape: Round vs. Wrinkled
  4. Pod colour: Green vs. Yellow
Q.10.
Match the pairs and rewrite:
Column I Column II
(1) Mechanical means (a) Saheli
(2) Physiological device (b) Jellies
(3) Chemical device (c) Vasectomy
(4) Permanent Method (d) Diaphragm
Answer:
  • (1) Mechanical means — (d) Diaphragm
  • (2) Physiological device — (a) Saheli (Oral Contraceptive Pill)
  • (3) Chemical device — (b) Jellies (Spermicides)
  • (4) Permanent Method — (c) Vasectomy
Q.11.
Redraw, complete and label the diagram given below, which relates to reflex arc:
Redraw, complete and label the diagram given below, which relates to reflex arc:
[Diagram: Cross section of spinal cord with reflex arc pathway]
Solution:

Simplified Exam Diagram

Note: Students are required to draw this in the exam.

Diagram: Cross section of spinal cord with reflex arc pathway
[Diagram: Cross section of spinal cord with reflex arc pathway]

Detailed Diagram (Reference Only)

Note: For understanding purposes only. Not required for the exam.

Diagram: Cross section of spinal cord with reflex arc pathway
[Diagram: Cross section of spinal cord with reflex arc pathway]

The student needs to draw the transverse section of the spinal cord showing the reflex path. Key labels to include:

  1. Receptor: Skin (where pin prick occurs).
  2. Sensory Neuron (Afferent): Enters via Dorsal root.
  3. Dorsal Root Ganglion: Swelling on dorsal root containing cell body of sensory neuron.
  4. Association Neuron (Interneuron): Inside the Grey matter of spinal cord.
  5. Motor Neuron (Efferent): Leaves via Ventral root.
  6. Effector: Muscle (showing contraction).

Arrows should indicate flow: Skin \(\rightarrow\) Sensory Neuron \(\rightarrow\) Spinal Cord \(\rightarrow\) Motor Neuron \(\rightarrow\) Muscle.

Q.12.
Explain Hardy-Weinberg’s principle, with the help of Punnett square.
Answer:

Principle: It states that allele frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of other evolutionary influences (like mutation, selection, migration).

The sum of allelic frequencies is 1: \(p + q = 1\)

The genotypic frequencies are given by: \((p + q)^2 = p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1\)

Punnett Square:

Gametes p (Dominant allele) q (Recessive allele)
p \(p^2\) (AA - Homozygous Dominant) \(pq\) (Aa - Heterozygous)
q \(pq\) (Aa - Heterozygous) \(q^2\) (aa - Homozygous Recessive)
Q.13.
Complete the following chart and rewrite:
S.NO Type Example
1. Vulnerable species Clouded leopard, Musk deer
2. ________________ Great Indian Bustard, Hawaiian monk seal
3. ________________ Three banded armadillo (Brazil), Short eared rabbit (Sumatra)
Answer:
  1. (Given) Vulnerable species
  2. Endangered species
  3. Intermediate species (Note: According to Maharashtra Board Textbook context)
Q.14.
Complete the tree diagram and write examples of (A) and (B):
Redraw, complete and label the diagram given below, which relates to reflex arc:
[Diagram: Complete the tree diagram and write examples of (A) and (B)]
Types of air pollutants
(A) Fine particles | (B) Coarse particles
Answer:

(A) Fine particles:

  • Size: Less than 5 µm (or 2.5 µm depending on specific text edition) in diameter.
  • Ex: (i) Aerosols
  • (ii) Smoke / Soot / Fumes

(B) Coarse particles:

  • Size: Over 5 µm in diameter.
  • Ex: (i) Carbon particles
  • (ii) Dust
Section-C

Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions:

Q.15.
Give the location and one function of the following receptors:
(i) Mechanoreceptors
(ii) Statoacoustic receptors
(iii) Baroreceptors
Answer:
  • (i) Mechanoreceptors:
    Location: Skin.
    Function: Detect mechanical stimuli like touch, pressure, and pain.
  • (ii) Statoacoustic receptors:
    Location: Inner ear (Internal ear).
    Function: Hearing (Phonoreceptors) and Body Balance/Equilibrium (Statoreceptors).
  • (iii) Baroreceptors:
    Location: Walls of carotid sinus and aortic arch.
    Function: Detect changes in blood pressure.
Q.16.
Classify the following composition of blood plasma given below as per column ‘A’ and complete column ‘B’.
Answer:
Column A Column B
(1) Plasma Proteins (i) Serum albumin, (v) Fibrinogen
(2) Nitrogenous waste (iii) Urea, (vi) Uric acid
(3) Inorganic Salts (ii) Bicarbonates, (iv) Sulphates of sodium
Q.17.
Name the causative agent of malaria. State any two symptoms and two preventive measures of malaria.
Answer:

Causative agent: Protozoan parasite of the genus Plasmodium (e.g., Plasmodium vivax, P. falciparum).

Symptoms (Any two):

  • High fever with chills and shivering.
  • Severe headache and nausea.
  • Profuse sweating followed by lowering of temperature.

Preventive measures (Any two):

  • Use of mosquito nets and insect repellents to avoid bites.
  • Elimination of mosquito breeding grounds (stagnant water).
  • Spraying insecticides to kill adult mosquitoes and larvae.
Q.18.
Identify ‘1’ and ‘2’ in the following diagram:
[Diagram of Vaccine Production]
Write in brief about production of vaccine.
Redraw, complete and label the diagram given below, which relates to reflex arc:
Answer:

Identification:

  • 1: Isolation of Antigen (Separation of specific antigen from the pathogen).
  • 2: Formulation / Mixing (Mixing of antigen with diluent/adjuvant).

(Note: Interpretation based on standard vaccine production flowchart found in textbooks where step 1 is antigen isolation and step 2 is formulation).

Brief about production of vaccine:

Vaccines are produced using biotechnology. The pathogen is cultured and inactivated or attenuated. The specific antigen (protein) responsible for immunity is isolated ('1'). It is then mixed with a suitable diluent or adjuvant ('2') to increase stability and immune response. This mixture forms the final vaccine.

Q.19.
Satish is a colorblind boy. His mother has normal vision but his maternal grandfather is colourblind. His father and maternal grandmother have normal vision. Explain the pattern of inheritance with a suitable chart.
Answer:

Analysis: Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder.

  • Satish is colorblind (\(X^cY\)).
  • Maternal Grandfather was colorblind (\(X^cY\)). He passed his \(X^c\) chromosome to his daughter (Satish's mother).
  • Satish's Mother is phenotypically normal but must be a carrier (\(X^CX^c\)) because she received the affected X from her father.
  • Satish's Father is normal (\(X^CY\)).

Inheritance Chart:

Parents: Carrier Mother (\(X^CX^c\)) × Normal Father (\(X^CY\))

Gametes \(X^C\) (Sperm) Y (Sperm)
\(X^C\) (Egg) \(X^CX^C\) (Normal Daughter) \(X^CY\) (Normal Son)
\(X^c\) (Egg) \(X^CX^c\) (Carrier Daughter) \(X^cY\) (Colorblind Son - Satish)

Pattern of Inheritance: This is an example of Criss-cross inheritance. The gene for colorblindness was passed from the maternal grandfather to his daughter (carrier), and then from the daughter to her son (Satish).

Q.20.
What are the requirements of dairy management? Give one example of each Indian and exotic breed of cow.
Answer:

Requirements of dairy management:

  • Selection of good breeds with high yielding potential and disease resistance.
  • Proper housing (well-ventilated, sufficient water).
  • Scientific feeding (fodder quantity and quality).
  • Hygiene and cleanliness during milking and handling.
  • Regular veterinary checkups.

Examples:

  • Indian breed: Sahiwal, Gir, or Red Sindhi.
  • Exotic breed: Jersey, Holstein-Friesian, or Brown Swiss.
Q.21.
Distinguish between DNA and RNA.
Answer:
Feature DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) RNA (Ribonucleic Acid)
Sugar Contains Deoxyribose sugar. Contains Ribose sugar.
Strands Usually double-stranded (Double Helix). Usually single-stranded.
Nitrogen Bases Contains Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thymine. Contains Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Uracil.
Function Stores genetic information. Helps in protein synthesis.
Q.22.
What is ‘green revolution’? Give any two examples each of the improved varieties of wheat and rice.
Answer:

Green Revolution: It refers to the drastic increase in the production of food grains (especially wheat and rice) in developing countries due to the introduction of high-yielding varieties (HYV), use of fertilizers, pesticides, and better irrigation techniques.

Examples:

  • Wheat: Sonalika, Kalyan Sona.
  • Rice: Jaya, Ratna (or Padma).
Q.23.
Give microbial source of the following products in industrial production:
(i) Vitamin B12
(ii) Chloromycetin
(iii) Pectinase
Answer:
  • (i) Vitamin B12: Pseudomonas denitrificans (or Propionibacterium shermanii)
  • (ii) Chloromycetin (Antibiotic): Streptomyces venezuelae
  • (iii) Pectinase (Enzyme): Aspergillus niger (or Sclerotinia libertiana)
Q.24.
State the significance of respiration.
Answer:
  1. Energy Release: It releases energy in the form of ATP, which is essential for various metabolic activities of the cell.
  2. Intermediates: It provides carbon skeleton intermediates required for the synthesis of other biomolecules (like amino acids, fatty acids).
  3. Substrate Activation: It converts insoluble complex food substances into soluble simpler forms.
  4. CO2 Balance: It releases CO2, which is used in photosynthesis, helping maintain the balance of gases in the atmosphere.
Q.25.
Explain the mechanism of anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen. It involves two main steps:

  1. Glycolysis (EMP Pathway):
    • Glucose (6C) is broken down into two molecules of Pyruvate (3C).
    • Net gain: 2 ATP and 2 NADH2.
    • This occurs in the cytoplasm.
  2. Fermentation:
    • The pyruvate produced is reduced to other products depending on the organism.
    • Alcoholic Fermentation (in Yeast): Pyruvate \(\rightarrow\) Acetaldehyde + CO2 \(\rightarrow\) Ethanol (Ethyl Alcohol). NADH2 is reoxidized to NAD.
    • Lactic Acid Fermentation (in Muscle/Bacteria): Pyruvate \(\rightarrow\) Lactic Acid.

Overall, it produces very less energy (2 ATP) compared to aerobic respiration.

Q.26.
Describe the role of citizens in solid waste management.
Answer:

Citizens play a crucial role in solid waste management by adopting the following practices:

  • 3R Principle: Following Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle to minimize waste generation.
  • Segregation: separating waste into biodegradable (wet) and non-biodegradable (dry) waste at the source.
  • Composting: Using wet waste (kitchen scraps) to make compost for home gardens.
  • Avoiding Plastics: Reducing the use of single-use plastics and carrying cloth bags.
  • Safe Disposal: Not littering in public places and disposing of hazardous waste (batteries, medicines) separately.
Section-D

Attempt any THREE of the following questions:

Q.27.
Sketch the internal structure of human heart. Label all the valves present in it. Mention the function of any one valve in the heart.
Solution: Sketch of the internal structure of human heart

Sketch Requirements: Draw a vertical section of the heart showing 4 chambers (RA, RV, LA, LV), major blood vessels (Aorta, Pulmonary Artery, Vena Cavae), and septum.

Labels for Valves:

  • Tricuspid Valve: Between Right Atrium and Right Ventricle.
  • Bicuspid (Mitral) Valve: Between Left Atrium and Left Ventricle.
  • Pulmonary Semilunar Valve: At the base of Pulmonary Artery.
  • Aortic Semilunar Valve: At the base of Aorta.
  • Eustachian Valve: (At opening of IVC - usually vestigial).
  • Thebesian Valve: (At opening of coronary sinus).

Function (Any one):

  • Tricuspid Valve: Prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium during ventricular contraction.
Q.28.
With the help of a suitable diagrammatic representation explain HSK pathway.
Answer: Sketch of the internal structure of human heart

HSK Pathway (Hatch-Slack Pathway / C4 Cycle):

This pathway occurs in C4 plants (e.g., Maize, Sugarcane) involving two types of cells: Mesophyll and Bundle Sheath.

  1. In Mesophyll Cell:
    • CO2 is accepted by PEP (Phosphoenolpyruvate) in the presence of PEP carboxylase.
    • Product: OAA (Oxaloacetic Acid - 4C compound).
    • OAA is converted to Malic Acid (or Aspartic Acid).
  2. Transport: Malic acid is transported to Bundle Sheath cells.
  3. In Bundle Sheath Cell:
    • Malic acid undergoes decarboxylation to release CO2 and Pyruvate.
    • The released CO2 enters the Calvin Cycle (C3 cycle) to form glucose.
  4. Regeneration: Pyruvate is transported back to Mesophyll cells and regenerated into PEP using ATP.
Q.29.
Describe the process of fertilization in human with the help of four sequential diagrams.
Answer: Process of fertilization in human with the help of four sequential diagrams

Process Description:

  1. Approach of Sperm: Millions of sperms reach the ampulla. Capacitation prepares sperm for fertilization.
  2. Entry of Sperm (Acrosome Reaction): The acrosome releases lysins (Hyaluronidase) to penetrate the Corona Radiata and Zona Pellucida. The sperm head fuses with the oocyte membrane.
  3. Cortical Reaction: Upon entry of one sperm, cortical granules in the egg release enzymes that harden the Zona Pellucida, preventing polyspermy (fertilization membrane formed).
  4. Activation of Ovum: The entry stimulates the secondary oocyte to complete Meiosis II, releasing the second polar body and forming the female pronucleus.
  5. Syngamy (Fusion): The male pronucleus and female pronucleus fuse (Amphimixis) to form a diploid Zygote.

Diagrams required:

  1. Sperms attacking the ovum.
  2. Acrosome reaction and penetration.
  3. Extrusion of polar body and cortical reaction.
  4. Fusion of pronuclei.
Q.30.
What is artificial method of vegetative propagation?
(i) Cutting
(ii) Budding.
Answer:

Artificial Vegetative Propagation: It is the process of growing new plants from vegetative parts of parent plants (root, stem, leaf) using man-made methods.

(i) Cutting:

  • A small piece of any vegetative part of a plant with one or more buds is cut and planted in soil.
  • Stem cutting: e.g., Rose, Sugarcane.
  • Leaf cutting: e.g., Sansevieria.
  • Root cutting: e.g., Blackberry.

(ii) Budding:

  • It is a form of grafting where a single bud (scion) from a desired plant is inserted into a slit in the bark of a rooted stock plant.
  • Common method: T-budding or Shield budding.
  • Example: Rose, Orange, Peach.
Q.31.
Describe the system associated with elimination of urine with the help of a neat, labelled diagram.
Answer:

The system associated with urine elimination is the Human Excretory System.

Components:

  1. Kidneys (Pair): Bean-shaped organs that filter blood to produce urine.
  2. Ureters (Pair): Muscular tubes that carry urine from the renal pelvis of the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
  3. Urinary Bladder: A muscular sac that temporarily stores urine. It has a smooth muscle layer called the Detrusor muscle.
  4. Urethra: A tube leading from the bladder to the exterior for the discharge of urine (micturition).

Diagram Labels Required: Kidney, Renal Artery, Renal Vein, Ureter, Urinary Bladder, Urethra.

--- End of Question Paper Solution ---

Question Paper Page No. 1 Question Paper Page No. 2 Question Paper Page No. 3 Question Paper Page No. 4

Maharashtra Board HSC Biology July 2022 Question Paper Solution

Board Question Paper: July 2022 - Biology

Max. Marks: 70 | Time: 3 Hrs.

SECTION − A

Q.1. Select and write the correct answer for the following multiple choice type of questions:

(i) In lac operon the structural gene z codes for _______ enzyme.

  • (a) \(\beta\)-galactosidase
  • (b) \(\beta\)-galactoside permease
  • (c) transacetylase
  • (d) RNA polymerase
Answer: (a) \(\beta\)-galactosidase

(ii) The special hygroscopic tissue found in the aerial roots of some epiphytic plants is _______.

  • (a) velamen
  • (b) epiblema
  • (c) endodermis
  • (d) xylem
Answer: (a) velamen

(iii) Due to specific mating behaviour, the members of population do not mate in _______ type of isolation.

  • (a) Ecological
  • (b) Seasonal
  • (c) Ethological
  • (d) Mechanical
Answer: (c) Ethological

(iv) The sequence of nitrogenous bases on DNA molecule is ATCGA. Which of the following is the correct complementary sequence of nitrogenous bases on mRNA Molecule?

  • (a) TAGCT
  • (b) TAGCA
  • (c) UAGCU
  • (d) UACGU
Answer: (c) UAGCU

(v) The oral vaccine for prevention of typhoid recommended by WHO is _______.

  • (a) typhoid polysaccharide
  • (b) typhin V
  • (c) typherix
  • (d) Ty21a
Answer: (d) Ty21a

(vi) The large holes in Swiss cheese are developed due to the production of large amounts of _______.

  • (a) \(O_2\)
  • (b) \(CO_2\)
  • (c) \(N_2\)
  • (d) \(H_2\)
Answer: (b) \(CO_2\)

(vii) Miyawaki is a method of plantation adapted by the government for the project mission Harit Kranti from the country.

  • (a) Japan
  • (b) Bhutan
  • (c) China
  • (d) America
Answer: (a) Japan

(viii) In ecological succession, the _______ community does not evolve further.

  • (a) seral
  • (b) pioneer
  • (c) intermediate
  • (d) climax
Answer: (d) climax

(ix) Which of the following sets or organisms are used as cloning organisms in plant biotechnology?

  • (a) E.coli and Rhizobium
  • (b) E.coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  • (c) Azobacterium and Rhizobium
  • (d) E.coli and Azobacterium
Answer: (b) E.coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(x) Aspergillus niger is the microbial source of _______.

  • (a) Vitamin C
  • (b) Vitamin B2
  • (c) Vitamin B12
  • (d) Vitamin B6
Answer: (a) Vitamin C

(Note: While A. niger is primarily the source of Citric Acid, in the context of Maharashtra Board textbook curriculum, it is associated with the production process of Vitamin C.)

HSC Biology

Q.2. Answer the following questions:

(i) Write the name of the small molecule required to initiate / start the process of synthesis of new complementary strand during replication of DNA.

Answer: RNA Primer

(ii) Name the country where industrial melanism was observed in moths due to industrialization.

Answer: Great Britain (England / UK)

(iii) Give the other name for epidermal cells in roots of plants.

Answer: Epiblema cells (or Rhizodermis)

(iv) Name the hormone used for early rooting in propagation by cutting.

Answer: Auxin (specifically Indole Butyric Acid [IBA] or Naphthalene Acetic Acid [NAA])

(v) In human pharynx, there is a set of lymphoid organs called _______.

Answer: Tonsils

(vi) State the other name for Dentist’s nerve.

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (V Cranial Nerve)

(vii) Name the type of Mycorrhiza that grows in between and within the cortical cells of root.

Answer: Endomycorrhiza (or VAM - Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza)

(viii) Identify the part labelled ‘A’ in the given diagram:

Blastocyst Diagram Placeholder

(Diagram shows a Blastocyst where A points to the outer layer of cells)

Answer: Trophoblast

SECTION − B

Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions:

Q.3. Sketch and label the diagram of ovule most commonly seen in angiosperms.

Answer:

The most common type is the Anatropous Ovule.

diagram of ovule most commonly seen in angiosperms [Diagram of Anatropous Ovule]
Key Labels required:
1. Funiculus
2. Hilum
3. Integuments (Outer and Inner)
4. Micropyle
5. Nucellus
6. Embryo Sac (Female Gametophyte)
7. Chalaza

Q.4. Explain “Law of dominance” with suitable example.

Answer:

Law of Dominance: It states that when two homozygous individuals with one or more sets of contrasting characters are crossed, the alleles (characters) that appear in the F1 generation are called dominant and those that do not appear in F1 are called recessive.

Example: In Pea plants, when a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure dwarf plant (tt):

  • Parents: Tall (TT) x Dwarf (tt)
  • Gametes: (T) and (t)
  • F1 Generation: Tt (All plants are Tall)

Here, the character 'Tallness' appears in the F1 generation, so it is dominant, while 'Dwarfness' is suppressed, so it is recessive.

Q.5. A woman is unable to conceive due to blockage in her upper segment of oviduct. State the infertility treatment to be given to her and describe it.

Answer:

Treatment: In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) or Test Tube Baby technique.

Description:

  • In this method, the ova from the wife (or donor) and sperms from the husband (or donor) are collected.
  • Fertilization is induced outside the body in a laboratory culture medium (simulating body conditions).
  • The zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) is then transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT - Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) or if it has more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus (IUT - Intra Uterine Transfer) for further development.

Q.6. Identify the types of chromosomal aberrations in the following figures A, B, C, D:

Identify the types of chromosomal aberrations in the following figures A, B, C, D [Diagram of hromosomal aberrations]
Answer:
  • A: Deletion (Loss of a segment of chromosome).
  • B: Duplication (A segment of chromosome is repeated).
  • C: Inversion (A segment of chromosome breaks and rejoins in reverse direction).
  • D: Translocation (Exchange of segments between non-homologous chromosomes).

Q.7. The process of transcription takes place on a part of DNA molecule known as transcription unit. Draw a well labelled diagram of the same showing different regions of the unit.

Answer:
Diagram of Transcription Unit [Diagram of Transcription Unit]
Labels required:
1. Promoter (at 5' end of coding strand)
2. Structural Gene
3. Terminator (at 3' end of coding strand)
4. Template Strand (3' to 5' polarity)
5. Coding Strand (5' to 3' polarity)

Q.8. Identify labels A, B, C, D:

Diagram of Transcription Unit

(Refer to Oogenesis diagram in the question paper)

Answer:
  • A: Primary Oocyte (2n)
  • B: Secondary Oocyte (n)
  • C: Ovum / Ootid (n)
  • D: Second Polar Body (n)

Q.9. Match the pairs and rewrite:

Answer:
Column I Column II
(a) Connecting link between ape and man (4) Australopithecus
(b) Ape man (1) Homo erectus
(c) Handy man like (2) Homo habilis
(d) Advanced prehistoric man (3) Neanderthal man

Q.10. Define polyembryony. State its different types.

Answer:

Definition: The phenomenon of development of more than one embryo inside the seed is called polyembryony.

Types:

  1. Simple Polyembryony: Due to fertilization of more than one egg cell.
  2. Cleavage Polyembryony: Due to splitting of the proembryo.
  3. Adventive Polyembryony: Embryos develop from diploid cells of nucellus or integuments (e.g., Citrus, Mango).

Q.11. Which are the major abiotic factors that influence habitat?

Answer:

The major abiotic factors are:

  1. Temperature: Affects enzyme kinetics and basal metabolism.
  2. Water: Essential for life; affects productivity and distribution.
  3. Light: Required for photosynthesis and photoperiodism.
  4. Soil (Edaphic factors): Composition, grain size, and aggregation determine vegetation.

Q.12. Identify A and B in the given diagram and explain T wave.

Diagram of Transcription Unit
Answer:
  • A: P-wave (represents atrial depolarization).
  • B: QRS complex (represents ventricular depolarization).

Explanation of T wave: It represents ventricular repolarization. It marks the return of the ventricles from an excited to a normal state (relaxation phase). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

Q.13. Water acts as a thermal buffer. Justify the statement.

Answer:

Water acts as a thermal buffer because:

  • It has a high specific heat capacity, meaning it can absorb or lose a large amount of heat with only a small change in its own temperature. This helps in maintaining a constant body temperature.
  • It has a high heat of vaporization, allowing organisms to cool down efficiently through evaporation (sweating/transpiration) without losing excessive body fluid.
  • It has high heat of fusion, preventing body fluids from freezing easily.

Q.14. The following diagram indicates which type of interaction? Write a note on the same.

Diagram of Transcription Unit
Answer:

Interaction Type: Mutualism (Specifically, a Lichen).

Note:

  • The diagram shows an intimate association between Algae (phycobiont) and Fungi (mycobiont).
  • This is an example of Mutualism where both species benefit.
  • The algae prepare food through photosynthesis for the fungus.
  • The fungus provides shelter and absorbs water and minerals from the soil for the algae.

SECTION − C

Attempt any EIGHT of the following questions:

Q.15. Suresh is doing his studies on a plant related to absorption of water. He found different forms of water available in the soil.

(i) Name them.
(ii) Which form of water is absorbed by the plants?
(iii) Name the region in the soil from where roots absorb water.

Answer:

(i) Forms of soil water: Gravitational water, Hygroscopic water, Combined water, and Capillary water.

(ii) Absorbed form: Capillary water.

(iii) Region: Rhizosphere (specifically the Zone of Absorption or Root Hair Zone).

Q.16. Name the stress hormone in plants. Describe its physiological effects.

Answer:

Name: Abscisic Acid (ABA).

Physiological Effects:

  • Stomatal Closure: It induces closure of stomata during water stress (drought) to reduce transpiration.
  • Seed Dormancy: It induces dormancy in seeds and buds to withstand unfavorable conditions.
  • Abscission: It promotes the abscission (falling) of leaves, flowers, and fruits.
  • Inhibition of Growth: It generally acts as a growth inhibitor.

Q.17. (a) Sketch and label the diagram of brain to show ventricles in coronal plane.
(b) Name the cavity which is continuation of IV ventricle.

Answer:

(a) Diagram:

Neat labelled diagram of Sketch of Brain Ventricles. - Biology [Sketch of Brain Ventricles]
Labels: Lateral Ventricles, Third Ventricle (Diocoel), Fourth Ventricle (Metacoel), Foramen of Monro, Iter.

(b) Cavity: The central canal of the spinal cord is the continuation of the IV (fourth) ventricle.

Q.18. Complete the following chart and rewrite:

Complete the following chart and rewrite
Answer:
Blood Group Genotype Antigen on Surface of RBC Antibody in serum
A \(I^A I^A\) or \(I^A I^O\) A Anti-B (b)
B \(I^B I^B\) or \(I^B I^O\) B a (Anti-A)
AB \(I^A I^B\) A and B (Nil)
O \(I^O I^O\) (Nil) Anti-A and Anti-B (a and b)

Q.19. Explain the various steps of biogas production.

Answer:

Biogas production involves anaerobic digestion in three stages:

  1. Hydrolysis (Solubilization): Complex organic polymers (cellulose, proteins, fats) are broken down into simple soluble monomers by hydrolytic bacteria (e.g., Clostridium).
  2. Acidogenesis: The monomers are converted into simple organic acids (acetic acid, formic acid) by acidogenic bacteria.
  3. Methanogenesis: Methanogenic bacteria (e.g., Methanococcus, Methanobacillus) convert the organic acids into Methane (\(CH_4\)), Carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)), and other gases.

Q.20. How ‘melt in mouth’ vaccines are administered? Mention any two benefits of the same.

Answer:

Administration: 'Melt in mouth' vaccines are administered by placing them under the tongue or simply eating them (e.g., edible vaccines in transgenic plants/fruits) where they dissolve and are absorbed into the bloodstream.

Benefits:

  1. They eliminate the need for needles/injections, increasing patient compliance (needle-free).
  2. They can be stored at room temperature, reducing the cost and logistics of a cold chain (refrigeration).

Q.21. Enumerate or enlist the various levels of biodiversity. Explain any one of it.

Answer:

Levels of Biodiversity:

  1. Genetic Diversity
  2. Species Diversity
  3. Ecological (Ecosystem) Diversity

Explanation (Genetic Diversity):

It refers to the variation in genes within a particular species. It allows a population to adapt to changing environments. For example, there are thousands of varieties of rice or mangoes in India, which differ in their genetic makeup.

Q.22. Write down various sequential stages of hydrarch succession in plants after phytoplankton stage.

Answer:

The sequential stages after the Phytoplankton stage are:

  1. Submerged Plant Stage: (e.g., Hydrilla, Vallisneria)
  2. Submerged Free-Floating Plant Stage: (e.g., Pistia, Eichhornia)
  3. Reed-Swamp Stage (Amphibious stage): (e.g., Typha, Sagittaria)
  4. Marsh-Meadow Stage: (e.g., Cyperus, Grasses)
  5. Scrub Stage: (Shrubs like Salix)
  6. Climax Forest: (Trees / Mesophytic vegetation)

Q.23. With the help of a suitable example, write the mechanism of hormone action through membrane receptors.

Answer:

This mechanism is for peptide/protein hormones (e.g., FSH, Insulin) which cannot cross the cell membrane.

Mechanism:

  1. Binding: The hormone (First Messenger) binds to a specific receptor on the cell membrane to form a Hormone-Receptor Complex.
  2. Activation: This complex triggers the release of an enzyme (like Adenylate cyclase).
  3. Second Messenger: The enzyme converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP) or releases \(Ca^{++}\). cAMP acts as the Second Messenger.
  4. Biochemical Response: The second messenger activates intracellular enzyme systems that regulate cellular metabolism, leading to the specific physiological response.

Example: FSH binds to ovarian cell membrane receptors -> generates cAMP -> promotes ovarian follicle growth.

Q.24. Classify the given proteins produced by rDNA technology to treat various diseases in human and rewrite as shown in the table:

Answer:
Disorders / Diseases / Health Conditions Recombinant Protein (s)
Atherosclerosis Platelet derived growth factor
Anaemia Erythropoietin
Parturition Relaxin
Blood clots Tissue plasminogen activator
Diabetes Insulin
Haemophilia A Factor VIII
Haemophilia B Factor IX

Q.25. Write a note on transport of carbon dioxide by bicarbonate ions at tissue level.

Answer:

About 70% of \(CO_2\) is transported in this form.

  • In RBCs, \(CO_2\) reacts with water in the presence of the enzyme Carbonic Anhydrase to form Carbonic acid (\(H_2CO_3\)).
  • \(H_2CO_3\) is unstable and dissociates into Bicarbonate ions (\(HCO_3^-\)) and Hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)).
  • The \(HCO_3^-\) ions diffuse out of the RBCs into the plasma.
  • To maintain ionic balance, Chloride ions (\(Cl^-\)) move from plasma into the RBCs. This is called the Chloride Shift or Hamburger Phenomenon.
  • This process allows blood to carry \(CO_2\) efficiently to the lungs.

Q.26. Anita observed apical dominance in her plant. Name and describe the plant hormone that will reverse the effect.

Answer:

Name: Cytokinin.

Description:

  • Cytokinins promote cell division (cytokinesis).
  • They counteract apical dominance induced by Auxins.
  • By applying Cytokinins, the growth of lateral buds is stimulated even in the presence of the apical bud, making the plant bushy.

SECTION − D

Attempt any THREE of the following questions:

Q.27. (a) Kabban Park in Bengaluru is having dull flowers with strong fragrance, abundant nectar and edible pollen grains. Identify the type of pollination, the flowers are adapted for.
(b) The process of fruit formation without fertilization is termed as _______.
(c) Differentiate between albuminous and exalbuminous seeds.

Answer:

(a) Type of Pollination: Chiropterophily (Pollination by Bats). The characteristics (dull color, strong fragrance, abundant nectar) are adaptations for nocturnal pollinators like bats.

(b) Parthenocarpy.

(c) Difference:

Albuminous (Endospermic) Seeds Exalbuminous (Non-endospermic) Seeds
Endosperm persists in the mature seed. Endosperm is completely consumed during embryo development.
Food is stored in the endosperm. Food is stored in the cotyledons.
Example: Maize, Castor, Wheat. Example: Pea, Bean, Gram.

Q.28. Give reasons :
(a) Though fertilization takes place in the ampulla of fallopian tube, implantation of embryo takes place after reaching the uterus only.
(b) Corpus luteum persists in the ovary after fertilization.
(c) Explain the role of oxytocin hormone and describe the dilation stage of parturition.

Answer:

(a) Reason: The fertilized egg (zygote) undergoes cleavage as it moves towards the uterus. It takes about 4-7 days to form a blastocyst. Implantation requires the blastocyst stage and a prepared uterine endometrium, which prevents ectopic pregnancy and ensures proper nourishment.

(b) Reason: After fertilization, the trophoblast cells of the embryo secrete hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin). This hormone signals the Corpus Luteum to persist and continue secreting Progesterone, which is essential to maintain the endometrium and the pregnancy until the placenta takes over.

(c) Oxytocin and Dilation Stage:

  • Role of Oxytocin: It acts on the uterine muscles and causes stronger uterine contractions (Labor pains). This creates a positive feedback loop leading to expulsion of the baby.
  • Dilation Stage: This is the first stage of parturition. Uterine contractions begin from the top. The cervix dilates (opens) fully (up to 10cm). The amniotic sac ruptures, releasing amniotic fluid. This stage lasts for about 12 hours.

Q.29. Give the graphic representation of back cross and test cross. Differentiate between them.

Answer:

Graphic Representation:

Let T = Tall (Dominant), t = Dwarf (Recessive). F1 Hybrid = Tt.

  • Back Cross: F1 Hybrid (Tt) x Any Parent (TT or tt).
  • Test Cross: F1 Hybrid (Tt) x Recessive Parent (tt).

Differentiation:

Back Cross Test Cross
Cross between F1 hybrid and any one of the parents (Dominant or Recessive). Cross between F1 hybrid and the homozygous recessive parent only.
Used to improve breeds or traits. Used to determine the unknown genotype of the F1 hybrid.
All test crosses are back crosses. All back crosses are not test crosses.

Q.30. (a) Name the nerve fibres internally connecting the cerebral hemispheres.
(b) Name the sulci which divide each cerebral hemisphere into 4 lobes.
(c) Describe the various functional areas found in the different lobes of cerebral hemispheres.

Answer:

(a) Connection: Corpus callosum.

(b) Sulci:

  • Central Sulcus (divides Frontal and Parietal).
  • Lateral Sulcus (divides Frontal/Parietal and Temporal).
  • Parieto-occipital Sulcus (divides Parietal and Occipital).

(c) Functional Areas:

  • Frontal Lobe: Motor area (voluntary movements), Broca’s area (speech production), Association area (intellect, memory).
  • Parietal Lobe: Somatosensory area (sensation of pain, touch, temperature, pressure).
  • Temporal Lobe: Auditory area (hearing), Wernicke’s area (understanding speech/language), Olfactory area (smell).
  • Occipital Lobe: Visual area (vision and visual interpretation).

Q.31. (a) Describe the structure of lymphocytes and mention its types.
(b) Name the disorder caused due to abnormal and uncontrolled increase in number of WBCs.
(c) State the functions of neutrophils.

Answer:

(a) Structure & Types of Lymphocytes:

  • Structure: They are agranulocytes with a large, spherical nucleus and very little peripheral cytoplasm. They constitute 25-30% of WBCs.
  • Types:
    1. B-Lymphocytes: Mature in bone marrow; produce antibodies (humoral immunity).
    2. T-Lymphocytes: Mature in thymus; responsible for cell-mediated immunity (Helper T, Cytotoxic T, Suppressor T, Memory T cells).

(b) Disorder: Leukemia (Blood Cancer).

(c) Functions of Neutrophils:

  • They are the first line of defense against pathogens.
  • They perform phagocytosis (engulfing and destroying bacteria/pathogens).
  • They release pus after dying at the site of infection.
Question Paper Page No. 1 Question Paper Page No. 2 Question Paper Page No. 3 Question Paper Page No. 4 Question Paper Page No. 5 Maharashtra Board Resources