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TYBCOM Business Economics MCQ With Answers | Mumbai University 2022

TYBCOM Commerce MCQ | Mumbai University 2022


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TYBCOM Commerce MCQ | Mumbai University 2022

TYBCOM Commerce MCQ

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. The_____concept rests on four pillars: target market customer needs Integrated Marketing and profitability. a)Product b)Production c)Marketing d)Holistic

  2. With the help of_____marketers can analyze customer behavior.  a)Marketing Research b)Enterprise c)Production concept d)None of these

  3. ________is one of the patterns of target market selection. a)Full market coverage b) Half market coverage c)Middle market coverage d)All of these

  4. ______is an element of marketing mix. a)Profit b)Price c)Investment d)Plan

  5. _______is the part of the product that carries information about the product and the seller.  a)Channel b)Profit c)Label d)Decisions

  6. ______when registered becomes a Trademark.  a)Brand b)Product c)Patent d)Copyright

  7. In_______distribution system, two or more firms at the same level come together for marketing purposes.  a)Horizontal b)Multichannel c)Multi-level d)None of these

  8. ________includes discount coupons, free samples etc. used to stimulate demand.  a)Public Relations b)Sales promotion c)Supply d)Publicity

  9. _______is one of the important steps in personal selling.  a)Blurring b)Prospecting c)Reporting d)Mentoring

  10. Ethics is a branch of______which is concerned with human conduct.  a)Physiology b)Psychology c)Philosophy d)Sociology

  11. _______marketing makes use of an electronic device such as a computer. a)Digital b)Green c)Rural d)Traditional

  12. ______is/are the main factors contributing to the success of brands in India. a)Unique selling proposition b)Innovation c)Consistency d)All of these

  13. _______ is also called Cause-related Marketing.  a) The Product concept b) The Societal Marketing concept c) The Marketing concept d) The Selling concept

  14. _______ is the first step in Marketing Research.  a) Setting objectives b) Follow up  c) Defining the problem d) Creating Research design

  15. _______ is one of the techniques of CRM.  a) Market Segmentation b) Market Domination c) Customer Feedback d) Market targeting

  16. _______ refers to the set of marketing tools that the firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in the target market.  a) Market Position b) Marketing Mix c) Marketing Research d) Market Coverage

  17. _______ is the act of creating a distinct place in the minds of the customers.  a) Positioning b) Branding
    c) Pricing d) Labeling

  18. In______ pricing strategy, a firm offers the same product to customers at different
    prices. a) Skimming b) Penetration c) Differentiated d) Follow the leader

  19. _______ is the form of Multi-level Marketing. a) Pyramid Marketing b) Network Marketing c) Referral Marketing d) All of these

  20. Integrated Marketing Communication is a _______ activity.  a) One-time b) Occasional c) Continuous d) Rare

  21. _______ Marketing refers to catering to the specific needs of a small segment of consumers. a) Aggressive b) Niche c) Online d) Digital

  22. _______ refers to online commerce transactions between customers. a) B2B b) B2C c) C2C d) None of these

  23. _______ is not a suitable marketing strategy for Rural Markets. a) Syndicated Vans b) Banners c) Melas and Fairs d) Augmented Reality

  24. ________ is a strategy by market followers. a) Flank defense b) Flank attack c) Adapter d) Preemptive defense

  25. ________concept of Marketing aims at making the product widely available. a) Production b) Exchange c) Relationship d) Holistic

  26. ________is one of the components of the Marketing Information System. a) Marketing Mission b) Marketing Channel c) Marketing Mix d) Marketing Intelligence

  27. Usage rate is one of the bases of Market__________. a) Channel b) Distribution c) Segmentation d) None of these

  28. During _________ stage, the product is launched in the market. a) Introduction b) Growth c) Maturity d) Decline

  29. __________ is a strategy when a firm uses an existing brand name to introduce a product in a different product category. a) Brand Extension b) Brand Positioning c) Brand Equity d) Brand Deletion

  30. __________ internal factors influence pricing of the product.  a) Demand b) Cost  c) Competition d) Consumer

  31. Manufacturer to customer distribution channel is called as _________. a) Zero- level Channel b) Multi-Level Channel  c) Two-level Channel d) None of these

  32. _________ is one of the elements of promotion.  a) Transport b) Warehousing c) Packaging d) Logistics

  33. ________ is a step in personal selling.  a) Prospecting b) External Environment c) Internal Environment d) Perception

  34. Consumer organizations assist individual customers in __________. a) Legal matters b) Brand Selection c) Product selection d) None of these

  35. In rural marketing, most of the rural customers prefer to make payment by _______. a) Demand Draft b) Cheque c) Cash d) None of these

  36. Marketing Manager of a global firm does not face __________ challenge. a) Global Market b) Demographics c) Communication d) None of these

  37. _________refers to studying and collecting information about the operations and responsibilities of a specific job.  a) Job Design b) Job description c) Job analysis d) job specification

  38. _________ refers to putting the right man for the right job. a) Selection b) Recruitment c) Placement d) None of these

  39. _________ is a technique of E-Selection. a) Group Discussion b) Campus interview c) Personal Interviews d) Keyword search

  40. Human Resource Development leads to _________. a) Personal Development b) Organizational Development c) Career Development d) All of these

  41. Performance appraisal is needed for ________. a) Managers b) Temporary Employees c) Permanent employees d) All type of employees

  42. ________ helps to improve an employee’s mental health and wellbeing. a) Counseling b) Mentoring c) Training d) Career guidance

  43. ________states that most employees dislike work and lack motivation. a) Theory Z b) Theory Y c) Theory X d) ERG Theory

  44. ________ is an act of stimulating someone or oneself to a desired course of action.  a) Motivation b) Morale c) Communication d) Emotional Quotient

  45. ________ is a feeling of injustice at the workplace. a) Grievance b) Attrition c) Counseling d) Engagement

  46. ________ popularized the concept of Learning Organizations through his book entitled “The Fifth Discipline”. a) Peter Drucker b) Henry Fayol c)Abraham Maslow d) Peter Senge

  47. Employee_________ is the extent to which employees feel passionate and committed to doing their job. a) Enrichment b) Engagement c) Enlargement d) Endowment

  48. Employee__________ involves giving the employees autonomy to take the right decisions. a) Empowerment b) Enrolment c) Education d) Experiment

  49.  ______means choosing the most suitable candidate for those who have applied for the post. a) Recruitment b) Selection c) Placement d) None of the these

  50. ______is a vertical expansion of a job by adding more responsibility and freedom to do it. a) Job simplification b) Job specification c) Job enrichment d) Job enlargement

  51.  ______is a component of Job description. a) Working conditions b) Training c) Qualifications d) Skills

  52. ______is a method of training wherein employees are transferred from one job to
    another. a) Counseling b) Understudy c) Job Rotation d) Case Study

  53. ______appraisal is conducted by various parties. a) Role Analysis b) Management by Objectives c) Ranking Method d) 360 Degree

  54. _____planning is a process of making arrangements to fill up the top important position in an organization.  a) Career b) Succession c) Human Resource  d) Employee

  55. ______is a financial motivation. a) Bonus b) Work Environment c) Appreciation d) Job Security

  56. ______leadership style is more suitable in family-run businesses. a) Bureaucratic b) Autocratic c) Laissez Fair d) Paternalistic

  57. Theory X of motivation is based______on assumptions of human resources. a) Positive b) Negative c) Positive and negative  d) Neutral

  58. _____is a type of competency. a) Organizational b) Core c) Technical d) All of these

  59. ______is an emerging employment pattern. a) Attrition b) Work from home c) Transformational d) None of these

  60. ______may be a cause of downsizing in organizations. a) Low Morale b) High absenteeism c) Cost reduction d) Low motivation


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TYBCOM Business Economics MCQ With Answers | Mumbai University 2022

TYBCOM Business Economics MCQ with Answers  | Business Economics MCQ Sem 5 |

TYBCOM Business Economics Mumbai University.

Since 1951, India has been a______economy.

  1. Socialist   

  2. Mixed 

  3. Capitalist     

  4. Feudal

The fiscal crisis faced by the Indian economy in the 1990s was caused primarily by__________.

  1. Widening gap between imports and exports

  2. Difference between savings and investments

  3. Widening gap between government expenditure and revenue

  4. Difference between aggregate demand and aggregate supply

Which of the following factors was one of the primary causes of the balance of payment crisis in 1991?

  1. Low rate of inflation   

  2. Surplus budget

  3. High-interest rate

  4. Rising oil prices and poor remittances

Which of the following sentences would best describe the Indian economy in 1990-91?

  1. High inflation, low foreign exchange reserves

  2. Low inflation, low foreign exchange reserves

  3. Huge current account deficit, fiscal surplus

  4. Current account surplus, huge fiscal deficit

Which of the following measures was adopted in 1991 to stabilize the economy?

  1. Banking sector reforms               

  2. Capital market reforms

  3. Control of inflation

  4. Insurance reforms

One of the measures adopted to control inflation in 1990-91 was______________.

  1. Lowering of CRR and SLR

  2. Lowering of bank rate

  3. Raising CRR and SLR

  4. Restricting imports of essential commodities

Which of the following measures did not form a part of fiscal correction in 1991?

  1. Increasing tax collection

  2. Cutting Down subsidies

  3. Reducing budgetary support to public enterprises   

  4. Raising tax rates

Which of the following measures was implemented by the government in order to reduce the current account deficit?

  1. Revaluation of the rupee  

  2. Strict exchange control

  3. Devaluation of the rupee

  4. Import restrictions were increased

Structural reforms are________________.

  1. Long-term measures 

  2. Improve the supply side of the economy

  3. Remove growth bottlenecks   

  4. All the above

Which of the following was not a feature of the New Industrial Policy 1991?

  1. Abolition of industrial licensing

  2. Setting up of new public sector enterprises

  3. Permitted foreign investment 

  4. Removal of MRTP limit

One of the policies adopted to make the public sector more efficient was__________.

  1. Raising fresh equity from the market

  2. Increasing government’s shareholding in public enterprises

  3. Maintaining public sector monopoly

  4. Increasing operational control on public enterprises by the government

Which of the following is an important banking sector reform introduced in 1991?

  1. Raising of SLR and CRR 

  2. RBI-determined interest rates

  3. Introduction of prudential norms

  4. Restricting imports of essential commodities

Capital adequacy norms help to_________.

  1. Increase bank’s profits

  2. Maintain financial stability 

  3. Control inflation

  4. Reduce balance of payments deficit

Capital market reform includes_____________________.

  1. Setting up of SEBI

  2. Special recovery tribunals

  3. Introduction of capital adequacy norms

  4. Deregulation of interest rates

The FDI limit in the insurance sector in India is

  1. 100%

  2. 79%

  3. 49%

  4. 26%

Which of the following is true of social infrastructure?

  1. It includes the education and health network

  2. It is aimed at improving quality of life

  3. It is an investment in human capital

  4. All the above

Which of the following describes the change in India after 1991?

  1. Reduced private investment in education and health

  2. Increased job security

  3. Reduced subsidies to the social sector in relative terms

  4. Increased formal jobs creation

According to the Human Development Report 2016, India’s HDI rank is ______among 188 countries.

  1. 131

  2. 125 

  3. 141

  4. 100

Which of the following is not true of the Right to Education Act?

  1. Free education to all children between 6 and 14 years

  2. It was enacted in 2009

  3. It is an adult literacy programme

  4. It is aimed at providing quality elementary education

The scheme for providing residential schools as an elementary level for girls is

  1. National programme for Education of Girls at Elementary Level

  2. Model Schools Scheme

  3. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shisha Abhiyan

  4. Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya

The scheme for improving access to secondary education is

  1. National Programme for Education of Girls at Elementary Level

  2. Model Schools Scheme

  3. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shisha Abhiyan

  4. Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya

Community Health Centres are located at the________level of public health infrastructure.

  1. Primary

  2. Secondary

  3. Tertiary

  4. None of the above

AIIMS is at the_______level of public health infrastructure.

  1. Primary

  2. Secondary

  3. Tertiary

  4. None of the above

The_______provides a reference point for the functioning of the public health centers.

  1. Indian Public Health Standards 

  2. Indian Public Health Guidelines

  3. Indian public Health Manual    

  4. Indian Public Health Rules

Which of the following is a programme aimed at controlling the spread of communicable diseases?

  1. National Oral Health Programme                              

  2. National Mental Health Programme

  3. National TB Control Programme

  4. National Programme for prevention and Control of Deafness

_________________is a fund that financially supports poor patients suffering from major life-threatening illnesses.

  1. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 

  2. Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi

  3. Pradhan MantriSwasthyaYojana                                

  4. All the above

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana provides health insurance coverage to_________.

  1. Workers in the unorganized sector   

  2. Workers in the organized sector

  3. The entire population 

  4. Only women and children

Which of the following statements best describes economic development?

  1. It always accompanies economic growth

  2. It indicates the increase in GDP

  3. It is reflected in the quality of life of the people

  4. It is a quantitative concept

Which of the following is not included in UNDP’s HDI composite?

  1. Culture

  2. Education 

  3. Health

  4. Standard of living

Does sustainable development include which of the following?

  1. Economic development

  2. Social development

  3. Environmental development

  4. All the above

________________is responsible for coordinating the SDG’s in India.

  1. Planning Commission

  2. Ministry of Human Resource Development

  3. NITI Aayog

  4. Ministry of Finance

_____is an initiative to make India a manufacturing hub.

  1. Skill India 

  2. NIT Aayog

  3. Invest India 

  4. Make in India

The scheme for skill training of youth to be implemented through the National Skill Development Corporation is_________.

  1. National Skill Development Mission

  2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

  3. Skill Loan Scheme 

  4. All the above

Which of the following statements best defines FDI?

  1. Buying shares of companies in a foreign country without gaining control over management

  2. Loans from multilateral institutions like IMF and World Bank

  3. Investment in foreign assets to acquire lasting business interest

  4. Foreign currency deposits of non-resident citizens

Which of the following constitutes foreign direct investment?

  1. Purchase of stocks

  2. Reinvestment of earning by a wholly-owned subsidiary abroad

  3. The lending of Fund to the foreign subsidiary

  4. All the above

Which of the following best describes horizontal foreign direct investment?

  1. FDI into industry that provide inputs to the firm

  2. FDI into industry that uses the firm’s output

  3. Long term lending to a foreign firm

  4. FDI in the same industry abroad as the foreign investor firm

Which of the following is not one of the benefits of FDI?

  1. Culture of consumerism

  2. Infrastructure development 

  3. Transfer of technology 

  4. Sectoral development

Which of the following are advantages of TNCs?

  1. Direct and Indirect employment generation

  2. Increased competition

  3. Industrial expansion

  4. All the above

The government institution that is responsible for the formulation of FDI policy in India is

  1. Foreign Investment Promotion Board

  2. The department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

  3. The Ministry of External Affairs

  4. The RBI

Which of the following was not a part of the FDI policy 2017?

  1. Strengthening the FIPB

  2. Introduction of Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal

  3. Introduction of Standard Operating Procedures

  4. Issue of Convertible Notes by start-ups

Chapter 2. Agriculture

The objective of National Agriculture Policy 2000 is to achieve an agriculture growth rate of

  1. 3%

  2. 4%

  3. 5%

The new policy aims to_______.

  1. Liberalize internal trade 

  2. exports 

  3. both

The average agricultural growth rate since 2000 is_________.

  1. Above 4%

  2. less than 4 percent  

  3. 4 percent

 Agricultural prices in India are________.

  1. Very certain  

  2. uncertain  

  3. very remunerative

Agricultural price policy is required to__________.

  1. Provide incentives to farmers 

  2. to encourage farmers to spend more

  3. to increase income inequality

Minimum Support Price guarantees the farmers with________.

  1. High income

  2. Floor price

  3. Competitive price

The issue price is at which the government supplies food grains_______

  1. In the open market 

  2. to the middleman

  3. to ration shops

Fair price shops protect the interest of_______.

  1. Poor farmers

  2. poor consumers

  3. poor traders

Price policy mainly benefits_______.

  1. Small farmers 

  2. marginal farmers 

  3. large farmers

The Major part of the agricultural credit is supplied by

  1. Money lenders

  2. Commercial banks

  3. Co-operate banks

RRB’s were established to provide credit to

  1. Only to non-agricultural activities in rural areas

  2. Both agricultural and non-agricultural activities

  3. Only to agricultural activities

Kisan credit card was introduced by___________.

  1. RBI 

  2. NABARD

  3. Co-operative banks

Non-institutional credit very often leads to________.

  1. Indebtedness 

  2. exploitation of borrowers

  3. Loss of land and property

  4. all the above

 Farmers require long-term credit for______.

  1. Consumption expenditure 

  2. purchase of land

  3. Purchasing seeds and fertilizers

Regional Rural Banks were established to provide finance to_______.

  1. Small and marginal farmers 

  2. village artisans

  3. Agricultural labourers

  4. All the above

 Agricultural market faces the problem of________.

  1. Seasonal price fluctuation 

  2. Low prices when the crop fails

  3. High prices when there is a bumper crop

Demand for agricultural commodities______.

  1. Very elastic 

  2. unit elastic

  3. less elastic

 Regulated markets aim at protecting__________.

  1. Consumers

  2. Farmers 

  3. Traders

  4. Both (a) and (b)

 AGMARK enables to ensure________.

  1. Quality of product 

  2. better price    

  3. both (a) and (b)

Market information reduces exploitation of________.

  1. Farmers

  2. Traders 

  3. Both (a) and (b)

Chapter: 3 The Industry and service sector During Post Reform Period

Which of the following is not an objective of the Competition Act 2002?

  1. Prohibition of anti-competitive agreements 

  2. Regulation of combinations

  3. Control of monopolies    

  4. Prohibition of abuse of dominant position

Competition advocacy refers to_______.

  1. Control of monopolies

  2. Restricting investments through licensing

  3. Control of unreasonable profits

  4. Promoting a competitive culture

Which of the following statements is not true of the PSUs in India?

  1. They have generated large scale employment

  2. They have high returns on investment

  3. They have saved foreign exchange

  4. They have created a diversified industrial base for India

Which of the following is a problem faced by the PSUs in India?

  1. Mounting losses 

  2. Underutilization of capacity c)Administrative defects 

  3. All the above

 The Central Government department responsible for disinvestment is

  1. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management

  2. Department of Commerce

  3. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion

  4. Department of Revenue

Which of the following is not a function of the DIPAM?

  1. Advising the government of matters related to CPSE

  2. All matters relating to the sale of central government equity through offer for sale or private  placement 

  3. Decisions on the recommendations of Administrative Ministries, NITI Aayog for disinvestment

  4. Promotion of foreign direct investment.

Offer of shares by a listed CPSE or the government out of its shareholding or a combination of both to the public for subscription is done through_____.

  1. Initial Public Offering 

  2. Offer for Sale

  3. Further Public Offering 

  4. Strategic Sale

Only financial institutions can participate in________.

  1. Initial Public Offering   

  2. Offer for Sale

  3. Further Public Offering

  4. Institutional Placement Programme

The MSME Act was passed in________.

  1. 2005

  2. 2002

  3. 2008  

  4. 2006

A separate ministry for small industries was set up in______.

  1. 1991

  2. 1999

  3. 2007

  4. 2005

_______________is the nodal development agency for the MSME sector.

  1. Divisional Commissioner MSME 

  2. Development Commissioner MSME

  3. Directorate General MSME 

  4. Development Council MSME

The scheme to improve ease of doing business in the MSME sector is________.

  1. SFURTI 

  2. UAM

  3. CLCSS

  4. ASPIRE

The law enacted as an outcome of the Bhopal Gas tragedy is_______.

  1. Public Liability Insurance Act

  2. The Environment (Protection) Act

  3. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 

  4. All the above

Which of the following is not true of toxic wastes in India?

  1. There are highly efficient systems for their disposal

  2. They can be caused by e-wastes

  3. Handling them can be fatal at times

  4. These constitute 10-15% of industrial wastes

Bharat Stage IV emission standards were adopted in_______.

  1. 1991

  2. 2001

  3. 2015

  4. 2005

Air pollution is caused by_________.

  1. The release of harmful gases 

  2. Solid and liquid particulate materials

  3. Smoke emission

  4. All the above

Which of the following is not true about global warming?

  1. It is causing glaciers to melt     

  2. It has put human lives at threat

  3. It has prevented the extinction of wildlife

  4. It has resulted in frequent natural calamities

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the services sector?

  1. Output includes intangible products 

  2. Is the fastest-growing sector globally

  3. Produces primary products     

  4. Involves a wide range of activities

Which of the following activities does not belong to the services sector in India?

  1. Retail trade 

  2. Real estate

  3. Insurance 

  4. Automobile

 In 2017-18, the services sector’s contribution to the GVA was______.

  1. 55.2% 

  2. 65.2%

  3. 59%

  4. 45%

The services sector’s contribution to employment as a percentage of total employment, in 2015-16 was 

  1. 40%

  2. 32%

  3. 50%

  4. 25%

The FDI limit in multi-brand retailing is________.

  1. 49%

  2. 74

  3. 100% 

  4. 51%

 The FDI limit in single-brand retailing is_______.

  1. 49%

  2. 74%

  3. 100%

  4. 51%

The healthcare industry includes______.

  1. Hospitals 

  2. Health insurance

  3. Pharmaceutical companies     

  4. All the above

 The FDI limit permitted for all health-related services under automatic route is 

  1. 51% 

  2. 100%

  3. 74%

  4. 26%

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Indian health care industry?

  1. Every citizen has access to high-quality services

  2. Inadequate infrastructure

  3. High incidence of diseases

  4. Inadequate insurance coverage

Which of the following is growth potential in the healthcare industry in India?

  1. Growing insurance market

  2. Expanding medical tourism

  3. Telemedicine

  4. All the above

The type of tourism that helps conserve natural diversity is_______.

  1. Ecotourism   

  2. Heritage tourism

  3. Adventure tourism     

  4. Medical tourism

The IRDA Act was passed in the year_____.

  1. 1999

  2. 1998     

  3. 2000

  4. None of the above

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority was established in which of the following year?

  1. 1999

  2. 2000

  3. 2001

  4. None of the above

How much FDI is allowed in the Insurance companies?

  1. 26%

  2. 49%  

  3. 51%   

  4. 75%

Which of the following committee was established to suggest insurance sector reforms?

  1. Malhotra Committee  

  2. Rangarajan Committee

  3. Narashimham committee

  4. Strategic Sale

Chapter 4: Banking and Financial market

A scheduled bank is one which has________.

  1. Paid-up capital and reserve not less than Rs. 5 lakh

  2. Term deposit of Rs. 5 lakh

  3. Demand deposit of Rs. 5 lakh

Public sector banks include________

  1. only the State bank of India    

  2. only nationalized banks

  3. only Regional Rural Banks 

  4. all the above

The population for every bank branch in 2015 was______.

  1. 64,000

  2. 16,000

  3. 10,300

To promote financial inclusion, on 28th August 2014, the following new scheme was introduced____.

  1. Garibi Hatao

  2. The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana(PMJDY)

  3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGA)

Which one of the following schemes were introduced under operational technology?

  1. ATMs 

  2. Mobile banking

  3. Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT)  

  4. All the above

Since 1991 commercial banks have succeeded in_______.

  1. expanding branches 

  2. deposit mobilization

  3. increase in lending

  4. all the above

In 2017 advances of commercial banks to the priority, the sector was____.

  1. 40%  

  2. less than 40%

  3. more than 40%

Financial inclusion aims at providing financial services to______.

  1. Industrialists

  2. Poor people

  3. Indian investors abroad

In recent years Indian banks have increased their efficiency by

  1. using information technology

  2. by reducing the number of employees

  3. by increasing the number of branches

In recent years the number of RRBs has_____.

  1. increased

  2. decreased 

  3. remained constant

Virtual banking aims at rendering banking services through_____.

  1. branch expansion

  2. advancing cheap credit 

  3. use of IT services

The IRDA Act was passed in the year______.

  1. 1999

  2. 1998

  3. 2000

  4. None of the above

Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority was established in which of the following year? 

  1. 1999 

  2. 2000

  3. 2001

  4. None of the above

How much FDI is allowed in the Insurance Companies?

  1. 26%

  2. 49%

  3. 51%

  4. 75%

Which of the following committee was established to suggest insurance sector reforms?

  1. Malhotra Committee  

  2. Rangarayan Committee

  3. Narashimham Committee

  4. Raja Chelliah committee

Which of the following is a part of the organized sector of the Indian money market?

  1. Indigenous bankers   

  2. Loan companies

  3. Call money market  

  4. Moneylenders

Which of the following is not the main player in the Indian money market?

  1. Government   

  2. RBI

  3. Commercial banks   

  4. Over the Counter Exchange of India

Which of the following are the main participants in the call money market?

  1. Commercial banks   

  2. Co-operative banks

  3. Primary dealers  

  4. All the above

Which of the following is not the feature of commercial bills?

  1. Short term 

  2. Trade bills

  3. Issued by RBI     

  4. The high degree of liquidity

Which of the following money market instrument is issued by commercial banks?

  1. CPs 

  2. Commercial bills

  3. CDs 

  4. Treasury bills

Which of the following measures absorb liquidity from the financial system?

  1. Repo

  2. Reverse repo

  3. MSF

  4. Buying of securities under OMO

Capital market is a market for______.

  1. Short term funds 

  2. Long term funds

  3. Medium-term funds  

  4. Medium and long term funds

Which of the following does not constitute the structure of the capital market in India?

  1. Gilt-edged market

  2. Industrial securities market

  3. RBI

  4. Mutual funds

The primary market does not include_______.

  1. Equity issues   

  2. GDR issues

  3. Screen-based trading 

  4. Debt issues

Which of the following measures constitute primary market reforms?

  1. Abolition of the controller of capital issues

  2. Setting up of NSE

  3. Setting up of OTCEI

  4. None of the above

Secondary market reform does not include_____.

  1. Screen-based trading    

  2. LAF

  3. Depository system

  4. Rolling settlement

Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are allowed to invest in_______.

  1. only equity shares   

  2. only debt market 

  3. both the above markets

 The Over the Counter Exchange of India(OTCEI) allows the companies to register only in____.

  1. OTCEI   

  2. OTCEI and NSE

  3. OTCEI and BSE

Mutual Funds play an important role in the Indian capital market as_____.

  1. A speculator in the stock market

  2. Investment avenue for small investors

  3. The promoter of large scale industries


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